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Opioid analgesics used in treatment of cough?
Ans. c (Codeine). (Ref: KD Tripathi, Pharmacology, 5th ed., 424)Codeine or its substitutes are widely used in treatment for suppressing, dry irritating cough.Following are anti-tussives (cough centre supressants).a.Opioidcodeine, pholcodeine, ethyl morphine and morphineb.Non-opioidNoscapine, dextrometharphan, oxeladine, clophedianol,cAnti-histaminicschlorpheniramine, diphenyl hydramine, promethazine.
3
Noscapine
Dextromethorphan
Codeine
Meperidine
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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The following features of panophthalmitis differentiate it from endophthalmitis except:
Ans. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber
1
Presence of pus in the anterior chamber
Proptosis
Limited and painful ocular movements
Complete loss of vision
Ophthalmology
null
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Which of the following is the embryological origin of ciliary muscle?
The ciliary muscle and blood vessels are derived from neural crest mesenchyme. Derivatives of neural crest:Corneal keratocytesEndothelium of the cornea and the trabecular meshworkStroma of the iris and choroidCiliary muscleFibroblasts of the scleraVitreousOptic nerve meningesOrbital cailage and boneOrbital connective tissues and nervesExtraocular musclesSubepidermal layers of the eyelidsRef: Riordan-Eva P. (2011). Chapter 1. Anatomy & Embryology of the Eye. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e.
4
Surface ectoderm
Neural crest mesenchyme
Endoderm
Neuroectoderm
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following is not an extrapyramidal tract -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Corticospinal Descending pathwaysPyramidal tractExtrapyramidal tractso Corticospinal tracto Rubrospinal tract o Tectospinal tract o Vestibulospinal tract o Reticulospinal tract
2
Rubrospinal
Corticospinal
Reticulospinal
Vestibulospinal
Physiology
Neural Tracts
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single
Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of which the following muscle attached to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal?
Tuberosity of 5th metatarsal base avulsion may occur with violent inversion of foot. Peroneus brevis inserts here.
1
Peroneus brevis
Peroneus longus
Peroneus tertius
Extensor digitorum brevis
Anatomy
null
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single
Most common phase II drug metabolizing reaction is:
- Glucuronidation    Carried out by UDP - Glucuronosyltransferase.    Results in increased molecular weight of the drug.    Helps in excretion in bile.
1
Glucuronidation
Acetylation
Oxidation
Glutathione conjugation
Pharmacology
null
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Glioma of the optic nerve is associated with -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neurofibromatosis type I Optic nerve gliomao Optic nerve glioma (astrocytoma) is the most common intrinsic tumor of the optic nerve. Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. The majority of optic nerve gliomas are of astrocytic origin. However, a few rare optic nerve gliomas arise from oligodendrocytes. 70% of optic gliomas occur during the first decade of life. Optic nerve gliomas are associated with Neurofibromatosis-1 (Von Recklinghausen's disease) in 55% of cases. 75% of optic gliomas arise from optic chiasma and adjacent optic nerve. 25% are confined to optic nerve alone (orbital optic nerve glioma).o Patients present with some degree of unilateral visual dysfunction, visual field loss, afferent pupillary defect, decreased ocular motility', optic atrophy, pain headache, and nystagmus. Proptosis is often the chief complaint of an orbital glioma. Nystagmus may also occur. Other late features of optic nerve glioma are neovascular glaucoma, anterior segment ischemia and hemorrhagic glaucoma from retinal vascular occlusion,o In chiasmal gliomas, there may be visual field defects, raised ICT, papilloedema and endocrine abnormalities like diabetes insipidus, hypopituitarism, dwarfism and precocious puberty.
1
Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type II
Both the above
None of the above
Unknown
null
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"Asteroid bodies" and "Cigar shaped globi" may be produced by:
Sporotrichosis
2
Sporothrix
Sporotrichosis
Phialophora
Aspergillus
Microbiology
null
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single
The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most pa of Bihar and easteran U.P. is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wuchereria bancrofti . W. bancrafti is the most widely distributed human filarial parasite.
1
Wuchereria bancrofti
Brugia malayi
Onchocerca volvulus
Dirofilaria
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following is NOT a bad prognostic sign for pancreatitis?
Ranson's Prognostic signs of Acute Pancreatitis (Caused by causes other than gallstones) At Admission During the initial 48 hrs Age > 55 years WBC > 16,000/mm^3 Blood glucose > 200 mg/dl Serum LDH > 350 IU/dl Serum AST > 250 U/dl Hematocrit fall > 10 points BUN elevation > 5 mg/dL Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Aerial PO2 < 60 mmHg Base deficit > 4 mEq/dL Estimated fluid sequestration > 6L Also know Prognosis criteria for gallstone pancreatitis At Admission During the initial 48 hrs Age > 70 years WBC > 18,000/mm^3 Blood glucose > 220 mg/dl Serum LDH > 400 IU/dl Serum AST > 250 U/dl Hematocrit fall > 10 points BUN elevation > 2 mg/dL Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Aerial PO2 < 60 mmHg Base deficit > 5 mEq/dL Estimated fluid sequestration > 4L Ref: Sabiston 18/e, Page 1600; Schwaz 9/e, Page 1183; Washington Manual of Surgery 4/e, Page 282v.
4
TLC > 16000
Calcium < 8 mmol/L
Glucose > 200 mg%
Prothrombin > 2 time the control
Surgery
null
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HIV transmission in relation to pregnancy is maximum during:
Ans. A. Labor and deliverya. The maximum risk is at labor and delivery. A baby can become infected with HIV in the womb, during delivery or while breast-feeding. If the mother does not receive treatment, 25% of babies born to women with HIV will be infected by the virus.b. With treatment that percentage can be reduced to less than 2%. If no preventative steps are taken, the risk of HIV transmission during childbirth is estimated to be 10-20%.c. The chance of transmission is even greater if the baby is exposed to HIV-infected blood or fluids. Health care providers should avoid performing amniotomies (intentionally rupturing the amniotic sac to induce labor), episiotomies and other procedures that expose the baby to the mother's blood.d. The risk of transmission increases by 2% for every hour after membranes have been ruptured.e. Cesarean sections performed before labor and/or the rupture of membranes may significantly reduce the risk of perinatal transmission of HIV.f. About 15% of newborns born to HIV-positive women will become infected if they breastfeed for 24 months or longer.
1
Labor and delivery
First trimester
Second trimester
Breastfeeding
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
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CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed by -
Beta 2 transferring is a protein seen in CSF and not in nasal discharge. Thus its presence is specific and sensitive for diagnosing CSF rhinorrhea. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 184)
2
Beta 2 microglobulin
Beta 2 transferrin
Thyroglobulin
Transthyretin
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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Kanavel's sign is seen in
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Tenosynovitis Kanavel's sign is seen in acute suppurative tenosynovitis of the little finger. It is tenderness elicited at a point in between the two palmar crease about 2.5 cm proximal to the base of the little finger.There are also 4 Cardinal signs of Kanavel seen in acute suppurative tenosynovitis of fingers. These are:finger held in slight flexion,fusiform swelling involving entire finger,tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, andpain with passive extension of the digit.Tenosynovitis is inflammation of the tendon and tendon sheath.
1
Tenosynovitis
Trigger finger
Dupuytrens contracture
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Orthopaedics
Disorders of the Hand
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Which vaccines are not given in a 8 yrs old unimmunized child
BCG vaccination of infants appear to offer significant protection from primary and disseminated tuberculosis including meningitis. In older children it doesn&;t seem to offer protection against secondary tuberculosis. It is generally recommended that peussis vaccine should not be given to children over 5-6 years old. The final dose in IPV series (Salk) should be administered on or after the fouh bihday and atleast 6 months following the previous dose. Reference: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition Page 888
4
Peusis
Salk vaccine
BCG
All
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
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Which of the following type of cataract is seen in a person 1-2years following exposure to radiation?
Radiation usually causes posterior subcapsular cataract which has their onset 1-2 years after completion of radiation therapy. A radiation dose of 15Gy is associated with a 50% risk of cataract formation. Christmas tree cataract is a rare form of age related cataract. In this type, the highly retractile multicolored needle shaped lenticular inclusions are seen within the deep perinuclear coex of the lens. Posterior polar cataract is a rare form of congenital cataract with a round, discoid opacity located in the central posterior pa of the lens adjacent to and merging with the posterior capsule. REF: Cataract Surgery from Routine to Complex: A Practical Guide By George J. C. Jin PAGE 21.
4
Lamellar cataract
Christmas tree cataract
Posterior polar cataract
Posterior subcapsular cataract
Ophthalmology
null
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Fungal spores may be produced -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above . Fungal spores have different morphology. They may be unicellular, multicellular or in chains. Sporangium contains asexual spores of phycomycetes, called sporangiospores.
4
Singly
In chains
In sporangium
All of the above
Microbiology
null
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Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by-
air borne contact dermatitis is diagnosed by patch testing with the specific allergen. eg: pahenium is the common allergen tested using patch test. IADVL TEXTBOOK OF DERMATOLOGY, INDIAN PATCH TEST SERIES PAGE 581.
2
Skin biopsy
Patch test
Prick test
Estimation of serum IgE levels
Dental
Dermatitis
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In uterine prolapse, decubitus ulcer in the cervix is caused by :
Venous congestion
3
Friction
Malignant change
Venous congestion
Trophic changes
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Drug not deposited in cornea:
Ans. Antimony
4
Gold
Chloroquine
Amiodarone
Antimony
Ophthalmology
null
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A 70 years males presented with asymptomatic white patch on oral cavity following application of the denture. Treatment of choice is
Leukoplakia White keratotic plaque or patch that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be given another diagnostic name Risk factors Smoking Alcohol Ill-fitting dentures Jagged tooth Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :761-762
3
Low dose radiotherapy
Biopsy of the all the tissues
Asceaining the denture is fit in completely
Antibiotics
Surgery
Head and neck
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Negative growth is a characteristic of:
null
4
Testis
Brain
Mandible
Thymus
Dental
null
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single
Which of the following is used for wound infection grading system?
Ans. (c) Southampton Grading(Ref: Bailey and Love 26th edition Page 54)* There are scoring systems for the severity of wound infection, which are particularly useful in surveillance and research.* Examples are the Southampton and ASEPSIS systems.
3
ASA classification
Glassgow scale
Southampton grading
APGAR score
Surgery
Trauma
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All of the following can cause osteoporosis, EXCEPT:
Osteoporosis is a skeletal disorder characterized by a loss of bone osteoid resulting in reduced bone integrity, thereby increasing the risk of fractures. Most common causes of osteoporosis are aging, highdose coicosteroid, thyrotoxicosis, hyperparathyroidism, alcoholism, sex hormone deficiency, paicularly menopause in women, tobacco, etc. Osteoporosis is caused by a reduction and disarray of bone's microarchitectural organic collagenous matrix, which accounts for 40% of bone mass and provides tensile strength. Calcium hydroxyapetite and phosphate compounds, mineralize the collagenous bone matrix and account for 60% of bone mass and bone's compressive strength. It is usually asymptomatic until fractures occur. Patients present with backache of varying degrees of severity or spontaneous fracture or collapse of a veebra. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 26; Textbook Of Ohopaedics By Kotwal, Page 108
2
Steroids
Fluorosis
Thyrotoxicosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Medicine
null
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The dorsalis pedis aery terminates at the
DORSALIS PEDIS AERY:- Dorsal aery of foot. Chief palpable aery on dorsum of foot. Continuation of anterior tibial aery on to the dorsum of foot. The aery begins in front of the angle between the two malleoli.It passes forwards along the medial side of the dorsum of the foot to reach the proximal end of first intermetatarsal space. Here it dips downwards between the two heads of first dorsal interossei and ends in sole by completing the plantar aerial arch. Branches;Lateral tarsal aery Medial tarsal branches Arcuate aery First dorsal metatarsal aery. {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 97}
4
Base of the proximal phalanx of the hallux
First metatarsophalangeal joint
Dorsum of ankle joint
Proximal pa of first intermetatarsal space
Anatomy
Lower limb
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Antemoem burn differ from postmoem burns by all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
Difference between ante-moem burns and post-moem burns: Trait Ante-moem burns Post-moem burns Line of redness Present Absent Blister Contains serous fluid with proteins and chloride. Base is red and inflamed. Contains air and thin clear fluid. Base is dry, hard, and yellow Vital reaction Marked cellular exudation and reactive changes in the tissue cells present Absent Enzymes Peripheral zone of burn shows increase in enzyme reaction Peripheral zone does not show increase in enzyme reaction Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th edition, Page 289, 290.
3
Pus in vesicle
Vesicle with hyperemic base
Vesicle containing air
Inflammatory red line
Forensic Medicine
null
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A term neonate was delivered by cesarean section. He presents with mild respiratory distress soon after birth. Chest X-ray shows the typical findings. How is this condition managed
This condition is Transient Tachypnea of Newborn: Seen in term / post - term neonate Neonates delivered by cesorean rection They presents with mild respiratory distress soon after birth which resolves in 48 hours X-ray a) fluid in interlober fissure b) Prominent bronchovascular markings Image is below Supportive treatement is given.
3
Oxygen delivery by CPAP
Surfactant provided by InSuRE technique
Supportive care as it resolves spontaneously
Oxygen delivery by endotracheal intubation
Pediatrics
null
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Which of the following is not an indication of secondary nerve repair:
Late repair/ Secondary repair( Repair weeks or months after the injury) , may be indicated because: (1)Closed injury was left alone but no sign of recovery is seen at the expected time; (Syndrome of incomplete interruption) (2)Diagnosis was missed and the patient presents late ( Delayed presentation) (3)Failed primary repair If there are signs of nerve irritation, secondary exploration is recommended( Syndrome of irritation) =Division of nerve by sharp object is managed by primary repair.
2
Syndrome of irritation
Division of nerve by sharp object
Delayed presentation of nerve injury
Syndrome of incomplete interruption
Orthopaedics
Amputations and Spos Injury
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Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be associated with elevations of pancreatic enzymes, including amylase and lipase?
Pancreatic dysfunction, heralded by large increases in serum amylase and lipase, is associated with the use of several reverse-transcriptase inhibitors (RTIs). Didanosine appears to be the worst offender, and pancreatitis is the most characteristic adverse effect of this particular NRTI. Conditions enhancing susceptibility to drug induced pancreatic dysfunction include hypertriglyceridemia, hypercalcemia, and history of excessive ethanol use. Liver dysfunction including hepatitis may occur with the antitubercular drugs, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. Cholestasis is associated with the estolate form of erythromycin.
2
Erythromycin
Didanosine
Isoniazid
Azidothymidine
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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Trapezius is attached to all structures except -
Trapezius originates from the occiput and inserts onto clavicle and scapula.
1
First rib
Clavicle
Scapula
Occiput
Anatomy
null
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Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except -
Impoant risk factors for contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) : Renal failure Diabetes Hypeension Dehydration Patient on metformin Hyperuricemia
4
Renal failure
Patient on metformin
Dehydration
Obesity
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
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Which of the following is a feature of nonselective Cox inhibitor but not of selective Cox 2 inhibitor?
Ans. is'b'i.e., Antiplatelet aggregatory(Ref: KDT 7th /e p. 194)
2
Analgesic effect
Antiplatelet aggregatory
Renal salt/ water retention
Prolongation of labour
Pharmacology
null
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Which muscle is called as peripheral heart:
Ans. A. SoleusThe soleus is a powerful muscle in the back part of the lower leg (the calf). It runs from just below the knee to the heel, and is involved in standing and walking. It is closely connected to the gastrocnemius muscle and some anatomists consider them to be a single muscle, the triceps surae. Also, in upright posture, the soleus is responsible for pumping venous blood back into the heart from the periphery, and is often called the skeletal-muscle pump, peripheral heart.
1
Soleus
Popliteus
Gastrocnemius
Quadriceps Femoris
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
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Signet-ring cells are found in which type of breast cancer NOT RELATED- GYN
Invasive lobular carcinoma accounts for 10% of breast cancers. The histopathologic features of this cancer include small cells with rounded nuclei, inconspicuous nucleoli, and scant cytoplasm. Special stains may confirm the presence of intracytoplasmic mucin, which may displace the nucleus (signet-ring cell carcinoma).
4
Papillary carcinoma
Tubular carcinoma
Invasive ductal carcinoma
Invasive lobular carcinoma
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
Which is the only medial branch of the external carotid artery?
null
4
Superior thyroid
Lingual
Internal maxillary
Ascending pharyngeal
Anatomy
null
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Bacterial vaginosis is caused by all except
Proteus does not cause Bacterial vaginosis Bacterial vaginosis MC Vaginitis Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mobiluncus species, Mycoplasma hominis, and Prevotella species. Gardnerella vaginalis is an example of Coccobacillus
3
Gardnerella
Mobiluncus
Proteus
Coccobacillus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
FMGE 2019
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Extra energy, needed per day during pregnancy –
null
4
150 Kcal
200 Kcal
300 Kcal
350 Kcal
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Advantage of palatal strap:
null
1
Increased rigidity with Less bulk
Increased retention of appliance
Can be used in Kennedy class I partial dentures
More economical and comfortable to patient
Dental
null
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Which of the following syndrome is associated with mental retardation?
Disease name Abbretion Enzyme Defective GaG(s) affected Symptoms Hurler syndrome MPS I a-l-Iduronidase Dermatan sulfate, Heparan sulfate Mental retardation, coarse facial features, hepatosplenomegaly, cloudy cornea Hunter syndrome MPS II Iduronate sulfatase Dermatan sulfate, Heparan sulfate Mental retardation Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no:639; Table: 50-8
1
Hunter syndrome
Morquio syndrome B
Sly syndrome
Natowicz syndrome
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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The distinct golden colour in transgenic Golden rice is due to the presence of-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., b-carotene
2
Riboflavin
b-carotene
Vitamin B12
Xanthophyll
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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who gave free asssosiation
CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845
2
bleuler
freud
lorenz
erikson
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
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Panophthalmitis involves -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., All structure of eyeball including tenon's capsule EndophthalmitisPanophthalmitiso Endophthalmitis is defined as inflammation within the anterior segment (aqueous) or post- erior segment (vitreous) or both together with partial thickness involvement of the adjacent occular wall (one or more inner coats of the eye) Inflammation characteristically involves the the inner structures of the eye ball i.e., uveal tissue (iris/ciliary body/ choroid) and Retina (Sclera is spared).o Panopthalmitis is defined as inflammation within the anterior (aqueous) segment andJ or posterior (vitreous) segment together with inflammation of all three coats of the eye.Panophthalmitis often starts as an endophthalmitis that then involves the sclera, tenon's capsule and may also involve the orbital tissue.
3
Inner coat of eyeball
Inner and outer coat but sparing tenon's capsule
All structure of eyeball including tenon's capsule
None of the above
Ophthalmology
Ocular Trauma
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Which of the following is decreased during third trimester of a normal pregnancy?
Late pregnancy was associated with the expected increases in hea rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output. Systemic vascular and pulmonary vascular resistance both decreased significantly, as did colloid osmotic pressure. Also know: During normal pregnancy, mean aerial pressure and vascular resistance decrease, while blood volume and basal metabolic rate increase. As a result, cardiac output at rest, when measured in the lateral recumbent position, increases significantly beginning in early pregnancy. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 5. Maternal Physiology. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
3
Hea rate
Stroke volume
Systemic vascular resistance
Cardiac output
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Failure of the choroid fissure to close results in
Failure of the choroid (optic) fissure to close results in a cleft of the iris--called coloboma iridis (mostly in inferonasal position). This defect may extend into the ciliary body, choroid, optic nerve, or retina. Congenital aphakia--absence of the lens--may result from defective development of the lens placode.
4
Congenital detached retina
Congenital aniridia
Congenital aphakia
Coloboma iridis
Anatomy
Eye, Nose and Ear
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Which of the following is predominantly involved in Alzheimer's dementia:
Answer is B (Temporo-Parietal coex):Alzheimer's disease predominantly affects the temporoparietal coex although frontal lobe is also frequently involvedAlzheimer's disease predominantly affects the temporo-parietal coex' - Alzheimer's Disease by Terry Regional deficits are most prominent in the temporo-parietal coex' - Alzheimer's Disease by Terry
2
Frontal coex
Temporo-Parietal coex
Fronto-Parietal coex
Franto-Temporal coex
Psychiatry
null
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A 15-year-old boy is bitten by an Ixodes tick while camping with his parents and presents 1 week later with fatigue, fever, headache, and a reddish rash over his trunk and extremities. Positive IgM antibody (1 :200) to Borrelia burgdorferi is associated with which of the following?
Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, elicits an acute antibody response. IgM appears within days to a few weeks following tick bite, and IgG appears a few weeks later. IgG persists; IgM does not. Cross-reactions occur with other treponemes.
1
Acute Lyme disease
Fifth disease
Possible hepatitis B infection
Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
Microbiology
Immunology
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True about actinomycetes is:
Actinomycetes- include A. israelii, Nocardia & Streptomyces: Gram-positive rods commonly found in soil and decaying organic matter or as colonizers of body surfaces. In culture and lesions, these organisms form filamentous or hyphae-like structures. Eumycetoma- has a fungal origin. Mycetomas can form as a result of traumatic injury, mainly people working in farms and forests.
4
Include A. israelii, Nocardia & Streptomyces are a group of organisms characterized as Gram-positive rods
Mycetomas can form as a result of traumatic injury, mainly in people working in farms and forests.
Organisms form filamentous or hyphae-like structures
All of the above
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
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multi
"Albumino-Cytologic Dissociation" occurs in cases of:
Guillain Barre syndrome
1
Guillain Barre syndrome
TBM
Motor neurone disease
Demyelinating disorder
Pathology
null
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single
Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the formation of: March 2010
Ans. A: Formic Acid The initial step in the metabolism of methanol involves the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). First, methanol is slowly oxidized by ADH to yield formaldehyde. Next, formaldehyde is oxidized by formaldehyde dehydrogenase to yield formic acid (or formate, depending on the pH). This oxidation occurs rapidly so that little formaldehyde accumulates in the serum. Finally, formic acid is metabolized to carbon dioxide and water, which are excreted by the kidneys and lungs. The accumulation of formic acid is responsible for the presence of metabolic acidosis. Formic acid also inhibits cellular respiration leading to lactic acidosis. The ocular injury caused by methanol may be due to retinal injury, which results from intra-retinal metabolism of methanol and the accumulation of formic acid. Alternatively, it may be caused be the inhibition of normal metabolism in optic nerve calls.
1
Formic acid
Formaldehyde
Lactic acid
Pyruvic acid
Pharmacology
null
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A 4-year child presents with a history of hoarseness, croupy cough and aphonia; the child has dyspnea with wheezing. The most probable diagnosis is:
Ans. B. Laryngeal foreign bodyForeign body Aspiration: - Most common age group is 6 months to 4 years. Most common foreign body aspirated is peanuts.Most airway foreign bodies lodge in a bronchus (right more than left).
2
Asthmatic bronchitis
Laryngeal foreign body
Bronchopneumonia
Retropharyngeal abscess
Pediatrics
Disorders of the Respiratory Tract
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single
When the drug binds to the receptor and causes action opposite to that of agonist is called as
In pharmacology, an inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces a pharmacological response opposite to that of the agonist Ref-KDT 7/e p42
3
Complete agonist
Paial agonist
Inverse agonist
Neutral agonist
Anatomy
General anatomy
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NOT RELATED- OHO Rolando's fracture is
a. Fracture distal radius with inferior radioulnar dislocation=Galeazzi fracture.b. Fracture distal end of radius with dorsal displacement and angulation=Colle'sfracturec. Fracture radial styloid=Chauffer's fractured. Fracture aicular surface of the base of first metacarpal=Rolando's fracture.
4
Fracture distal radius with inferior radioulnar dislocation
Fracture distal end of radius with dorsal displacement and angulation
Fracture radial styloid
Fracture extra-aicular surface of the base of first metacarpal
Pharmacology
All India exam
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Ratio of incidence of a disease among the exposed to the incidence among non-exposed is:
Ref. Foundations of Community medicine. Page. 596   Measures of effect Measures of effect are used in epidemiological studies to assess the strength of an association between a putative risk factor and the subsequent occurrence of disease. This requires that the incidence of disease in a group of persons exposed to a potential risk factor is compared with the incidence in a group of persons not exposed to the potential risk factor. This comparison can be summarized by calculating either the ratio of measures of disease frequency for the two groups or the difference between the two, and reflects the increase in frequency of disease in one population compared with another, treated as baseline.   Three main measures of effect
2
Odds ratio
Relative risk
Absolute risk
Attributable risk
Unknown
null
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single
Which of the following muscle is pierced by the needle while giving an IANB:
null
2
Medial pterygoid
Buccinator
Temporalis
Superior constrictor
Surgery
null
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Uterine artery is branch of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anterior branch of internal iliac o Branches of anterior division of internal iliac artery are : (i) Superior vesical, (ii) Middle rectal, (iii) Inferior vesical (in males), (iv) Internal pudendal, (v) Vaginal (in females), (vi) Uterine (in females), (vii) Obturator, and (viii) Inferior glutealo Branches of posterior division are : (i) Iliolumbar, (ii) Lateral sacral, and (iii) Superior gluteal.
1
Anterior branch of internal iliac
Posterior branch of internal iliac
Anterior division of external iliac
Psterior division of external iliac
Anatomy
Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis
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Percentage of malignancy in duct ectasia is
Ans. (a) No risk(Ref. Schwartz 10th edition Page 511, Bailey 26th edition page 806)* The periductal mastitis mimics like cancer and hence mammography must be done.* Otherwise there is no risk of cancer in Duct ectasia
1
No risk
5:01
1.2 :1
10:01
Surgery
Breast
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single
True statements about shock -
null
4
During dehydration both ICF and ECF volume decreases
10-20% of fluid loss is compatible to life.
Hemorrhage cause intravascular fluid loss
All of the above
Medicine
null
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A study of aging shows that senescent cells have accumulated damage from toxic byproducts of metabolism. There is increased intracellular lipofuscin deposition. Prolonged ingestion of which of the following substances is most likely to counteract this aging mechanism?
Antioxidants may counteract the effects of reactive oxygen species (ROS) that may accumulate acutely and chronically within cells as a consequence of environmental insults and pathologic processes. Certainly, health food stores promote this concept with sales of products such as vitamin E. However, cellular damage is multifactorial, and proving that one compound has a significant effect is difficult. Analgesics ameliorate the perception of pain from cellular damage, but they do not prevent or diminish cell damage; they only mask it. Antimicrobials may help the body's own immune defenses against infectious agents and shorten and/or diminish tissue damage. However, long-term use of antimicrobials is discouraged because it may alter the body's own useful microbial flora, and it can promote development of drug-resistant strains that pose a serious health risk for the general population. (As Mr. Spock noted, "The needs of the many outweigh the needs of the few.") Antineoplastic agents are given for malignancies and rarely have benefit for cancer prevention. Glucocorticoids provide short-term improvement in well-being, but when used for longer periods, they have deleterious effects.
1
Antioxidants
Analgesics
Antimicrobials
Antineoplastic agents
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
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Cause of large kidney in CRF are a/e
null
3
DM
Amyloidosis
Benign nephrosclerosis
Diffuse GN
Medicine
null
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TIPSS involves percutaneous creation of a shunt between
It&;s a nonsurgical interventional radiological method wherein stent is placed in the liver between hepatic venule and poal venule through a guidewire, used in reducing poal pressure before doing an ohotopic liver transplantation in cirrhotic patients. Reference SRB edition 5 page:622
2
Poal vein and vena cava
Poal vein and hepatic vein
Hepatic vein and vena cava
Poal vein and hepatic aery
Surgery
G.I.T
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All the following hormones are secreted by adrenal cortex except:
null
1
Estriol
Cortisol
Corticosterone
Aldosterone
Physiology
null
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The type of glomerulonephritis which is least likely to cause chronic renal failure-
In adults, 15% to 50% of affected persons develop end-stage renal disease over the ensuing few years or 1 to 2 decades, depending on the clinical and histologic severity. By contrast, in children, the prevalence of chronicity after sporadic cases of acute postinfectious GN is much lower. <\p> robbins book of pathology. 9th edition. Page 529
3
Membranous glomerulonephritis
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
Pathology
Urinary tract
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Which branch of fascial nerve supplies muscles of lower lip (FMGE Dec 2018)
-TEMPORAL BRANCH-Supply upper pa of orbicularis oculi and frontalis -ZYGOMATIC BRANCH-Supply lower pa of orbicularis oculi -BUCCAL BRANCH-Supply upper orbicularis oris, zygomaticus minor/major -MARGINAL MANDIBULAR BRANCH-Supply lower lip-Mentalis, lower orbicularis oris, depressor labii inferioris -CERVICAL BRANCH -Supply Platysma
4
Temporal
Cervical
Buccal
Mandibular
Anatomy
FMGE 2018
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single
Which of the following statements best explains the action of nitroglycerine on coronary vessels:
Nitrates cause redistribution of blood flow without affecting total coronary flow. Autoregulatory small vessels remain unaffected whereas large conducting vessels are dilated. Nitrates are predominantly venodilators, therefore decrease mainly preload.
2
It mitigates angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow
It preferentially dilates conducting aeries without affecting resistance aerioles
It preferentially dilates autoregulatory aerioles without affecting the larger aeries
It mainly decreases the after load
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
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Combined indicator to reflect both acute and chronic malnutrition is
Indicators of undernutrition Indicator Interpretation Comment Stunting Low height-for-age Indicator of chronic malnutrition, the result of prolonged food deprivation and/ or disease or illness Wasting Low weight-for-height Suggests acute malnutrition, the result of more recent food deficit or illness Underweight Low weight-for-age Combined indicator to reflect both acute and chronic malnutrition Reference: Paediatrics; O.P Ghai; 8th edition; Page no: 95
4
Low height-for-age
Low weight-for-height
Low height-for-weight
Low weight-for-age
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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multi
Palpable purpura is seen in
Answer is C (H. S. Purpura): Henoch Sconlein Purpura is associated with palpable purpura without thrombocytopeniae
3
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Scurvy
Henoch Sconlein Purpura
Monoclonal cryoglobulinemia
Medicine
null
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A 28-year-old man flips over an all-terrain vehicle, and he lands on his leg. On physical examination, there is intense pain on palpation over the right shin, but there is no shortening of the limb. The overlying skin is intact. A radiograph shows right tibial and fibular midshaft fracture into multiple bone fragments. Which of the following terms best describes these fractures?
When the bone is splintered into fragments, the fracture is comminuted, and will likely require orthopedic appliances to align fragments for healing. A compound fracture penetrates the skin. Displaced fractures have nonaligned bone, and some deformity may result. The bone remains contiguous with an incomplete fracture that does not extend completely across the shaft of the bone. A pathologic fracture occurs in a location weakened by a preexisting disease, such as a metastatic lesion.
1
Comminuted
Compound
Displaced
Incomplete
Pathology
Osteology
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multi
Commonest site of obstetric injury leading to uretero vaginal fistula :
Infundibulo pelvic ligament
1
Infundibulo pelvic ligament
Vaginal vault
Distal to uterine aery near vaginal vault
Below cardinal ligament where uterine aery crosses
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The tensile strength of the wound stas and increase after
Wound Strength Carefully sutured wounds have approximately 70% of the strength of normal skin When sutures are removed, usually at 1 week, wound strength is approximately 10% of that of unwounded skin this increases rapidly over the next 4 weeks Wound strength reaches approximately 70% to 80% of normal by 3 month ref:-basic pathology,robbins 9th ed , page 72
3
Immediate suture of the wound
3 to 4 days
7 to 10 days
6 months
Pathology
General pathology
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single
All of the following statements about Renal physiology are true, except:
Kidney receives 25%)(1.2-1.3L) of cardiac output.Ref: Ganong's review of Medical Physiology, 23rd edition, Page number: 643
2
Distal tubule always receives hypoosmotic solution
The kidney receive 5% of the cardiac output
GFR is controlled by resistance in afferent and efferent aerioles
The Glomerulus receives capillaries from the afferent aeriole
Physiology
Renal physiology
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The following type of glomerulonephritis should not be treated with prednisolone?
By the time the child with acute PSGN presents with symptoms, the glomerular injury has already occurred and the healing process has begun. Only a small percentage of patients with acute glomerulonephritis require initial hospitalization and most of those are ready for discharge in 2-4 days. As soon as the blood pressure is under relatively good control and diuresis has begun, most patients can be discharged and monitored as outpatients. Local skin infections will be treated with penicillin for 10 days but steroids are not warranted.
4
Minimal change disease
Lipoid nephrosis
Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
Post-streptococcal GN
Medicine
Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome
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single
According to FDI tooth numbering system the number 45 refers to
null
2
deciduous mandibular right second molar
mandibular right second premolar
maxillary right second premolar
deciduous maxillary right second molar
Dental
null
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single
Drug safely given in Pregnancy -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chloroquine
3
Antifolate
Quinine
Chloroquine
Primaquine
Pharmacology
null
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Common ocular manifestation in Trisomy 13 is
B i.e. Bilateral micropthalmos Patau's syndrome (trisomy 13)Q present with microcephaly, mental retardation and micropthalmos Q Patau's Syndrome Ocular Manifestations - Micropthalmos Q/ Anopthalmos - Anterior segment dysgenesis - Cyclopia - Corneal opacity - Cataract / congenital glaucoma - Coloboma - Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous - Retinal dysplasia - Hypeelorism Other Features - Microcephaly/mental retardation - Cleft lip & palate - Polydactyly - Cardiac defects - Umbilical hernia - Renal defects - Rocker bottom feet
2
Capillary hemangioma
Bilateral microphthalmos
Neurofibroma
Dermoid Cyst
Ophthalmology
null
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The most common cause of "Antibiotic" induced colitis is due to:
Clostridium difficile
2
E. coli
Clostridium difficile
Salmonella
Campylobacter jejuni
Microbiology
null
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The gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation is:
B i.e. Carbon Monoxide Carbon Monoxide Poisoning CO is a colourless, tasteless, non irritant gasQ which is produced due to incomplete combustion of carbon. CO poisoning is defined as > 15 % carboxyhemoglobinQ in blood (normal < 1.5 % in nonsmokers, < 10 % in smokers). Diagnosis is made by cooximetric measurements of blood not by pulse oxymeter. CO has 200 - 300 times the affinity of 02 for hemoglobin. It decreases the affinity of 02 and shifts hemoglobin dissociation curve to right. -Toxicity may be due to smoke inhalation or by degradation of desflurane by CO2 absorbent Lower levels produce systemic toxicity because of binding with cytochrome-c & myoglobin and higher levels produce toxicity due to binding with Hemoglobin leading to tissue hypoxia.
2
Ammonium
Carbon monoxide
Hydrocyanic acid
Sulfur dioxide
Anaesthesia
null
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Patient perceives a stimulus from one modality and perceives hallucination in another modality
FUNCTIONAL HALLUCINATIONS Patient perceives a stimulus from one modality and perceives hallucination in same modality Ex. Whenever the patient hears water flowing from tap he hears auditory hallucinations REFLEX HALLUCINATION: Patient perceives a stimulus from one modality and perceives hallucination in another modality Ex. Whenever the patient sees blue color he hears auditory hallucinations EXTRACAMPINE AUDITORY HALLUCINATIONS Patient sits in Chennai and says that he could see things that are happening in Delhi Patient is perceiving things that is outside his normal visual ability Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg No. 195
2
functional hallucination
reflex hallucinations
extra campine hallucination
Auditory hallucination
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Intractable seizure in a 7-day-old child with skin rash, Increased ammonia and lactate can be diagnosed as
Mutation in mitochondrial DNA, result in disease 1.Mitochondrial myopathies 2.MERRF syndrome - myoclonus epilepsy with ragged red fibers 3.MELA's syndrome - mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactate acidosis and stroke like pisodes, (Intermittent vomiting, proximal muscles weakness) 4.LHON=Leber hereditary optic neuropathy-acure or subacute loss vision in men around the age of 20 5.K. SS - Kearns - Sayre syndrome - progressiwe external ophthalmoplegia, pigmentary retinopathy and cardiac conduction defects presenting in childhood. Organic acidemias - The intermediate metabolitess are all organic acids and deficiency of any degrading enzymes except transaminases, causes acidosis, In such msvance the organic acids before the enzymatic block accumulate
1
Organic acidemia
Phenylketonuria
Urea cycle anomaly
ME LAS with lactic acidosis
Pediatrics
null
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single
In humans, end product of purine metabolism
Question repeated
2
Allantoin
Uric acid
CO2
None
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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A 42 year old female P3 + 0 + 0 + 3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be:
Ans. is a i.e. Hysterectomy
1
Hysterectomy
Weheim's hysterectomy
Conisation
Wait and Watch
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Which of the following drug is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
ANTIVIRAL DRUG: CLASSI FICATION 1.Anti-Herpes virus Idoxuridine, Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, Famciclovir, Ganciclovir*, Foscarnet* 2 Anti-Retrovirus (a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (Nis): Zidovudine (AZT), Didanosine, Zalcitabine*, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abaca vir (b) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNis): Nevirapine, Eirenz, Delavirdine* (c) Protease inhibitors: Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir, Amprenavir*, Lopinavir 3. Anti-Influenza virus Amantadine, Rimantadine* 4. NonselectiVe antiviral drugs Ribavirin, Lamivudine, Adefovir dipivoxil, Interferon alpha. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:767
4
Indinavir
Ritonavir
Nelfinavir
Abacavir
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Tubuloglomerular feedback is initiated by delivery of:
- The rate of NaCl delivery to the distal nephron significantly influences the RBF and GFR; the mechanism is called Tubuloglomerular (TG) feedback. The mechanism is based on 3 components: (i) A sensor: Cells in the macula densa. (ii) A signal: NaCl delivery to the distal tubule. (iii) An effector: Vascular smooth muscle cells within the wall of the afferent aeriole. When filtration increases, the increased NaCl delivery to the macula densa triggers vasoconstriction of the afferent aeriole. This results in a decrease in RBF and hence a decrease in GFR,reducing the NaCl delivery to the macula densa/distal tubules. The vasoconstriction is thought to be mediated by adenosine . If GFR and NaCl delivery to distal tubule are decreased, a decrease in ATP and adenosine formation occurs. There is the release of NO that produces vasodilatation, causing increased RBF and GFR. As more NaCl enters through the NKCC-2 transpoer located in the apical membrane (TAL), it stimulates the release of ATP through ATP-conducting ion channels located in the basolateral membrane of macula densa cells. This results in the opening of Ca2+ channels and an increase in intracellular , resulting in vasoconstriction and fall in GFR. Loop diuretics are known to blunt the TG feedback due to their action on the NKCC transpoer.
3
Na+ to the macula densa
Cl- to the macula dense
NaCl to macula densa
NaCl to the loop of Henle
Physiology
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
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Max. absorption of water takes place in :
Ans. is 'c' is PCT * " Normally, about 65 percent of the filtered load of sodium and water and a slightly lower percentage of filtered chloride are reabsorbed by the proximal tubule before the filtrate reaches the loop of Henle *
3
Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
PCT
DCT
Physiology
Renal Tubular Reabsorption and Secretion
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single
A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite increased appetite. The history and physical examination reveal exophthalmos, fine resting tremor, tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Laboratory tests for thyroid function would be expected to yield a decreased value for which of the following?
- Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of hypehyroidism - Laboratory findings depicted in graves disease are: Decreased TSH levels Increased serum T3, free T4 levels Increased T3 resin upake Increased saturation of TBG Increased radioactive iodine uptake
4
Free T4
Radioactive iodine uptake
T3 resin uptake
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Pathology
Hypehyroidism and Goitre
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single
Most common site for medulloblastoma is-
POORLY-DIFFERENTIATED AND EMBRYONAL TUMOURS CNS tumors composed of primitive undifferentiated cells include medulloblastoma and glioblastoma, and rarely, neuroblastoma and retinoblastoma. Medulloblastoma is the most common variety of primitive neuroectodermal tumor. The most common location is the cerebellum in the region of roof of the fouh ventricle, in the midline of the cerebellum, in the vermis, and in the cerebellar hemispheres. Medulloblastoma is a highly malignant tumor and spreads to local as well as to distant sites. It invades locally and by the CSF to meninges, ventricles and subarachnoid space and has a tendency for widespread metastases to extraneural sites such as to lungs, liver, veebrae, and pelvis. Microscopically, medulloblastoma is composed of small, poorly-differentiated cells with ill-defined cytoplasmic processes and a tendency to be arranged around blood vessels and occasionally forms pseudorosettes (Homer-Wright rosettes). Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:889
1
Cerebellum
Pituitary
Cerebrum
Pineal gland
Pathology
Nervous system
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single
Mcburney's point tenderness is indicative of signifies -
Ans. 'a' i.e., Acute appendicitis * McBurney's point is the name given to the point over the right side of the abdomen that is one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus (navel).* This point roughly corresponds to the most common location of the base of the appendix where it is attached to the cecum.* Deep tenderness at McBurney's point, known as McBurney's sign, is a sign of acute appendicitis.
1
Acute appendicitis
Acute pancreatitis
Acute hepatitis
Acute nephritis
Surgery
Vermiform Appendix
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single
Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts
null
3
Periapical cemental dysplasia
Familial cemental dysplasia
Benign cementoblastoma
Hypercementosis
Pathology
null
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multi
The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows:
null
1
EndosteaL bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
Presence of extra collagen fibres and Less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture
Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoclasts
Pathology
null
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single
Mrs AR G3 P1LIA a full term pregnant female is admitted in labor. On examination, she has uterine contractions 2 in 10 minutes, lasting for 30-35 seconds.On P/A examination 3/5th of the head is palpable per abdomen.On P/V examination-cervix is 4 cms dilated, membranes intact.On repeat examination 4 hours later, cervix is 5 cms dilated, station is unchanged, and cervicograph remains to the right of the alert line. Which of the following statements is true?
In this patient at the beginning of the labor, three fifths of the head was palpable , which indicates head is not engaged as head is said to be engaged only if 1/5th is palpable per abdomen…
3
The head was engaged at the time a of presentation
Her cervicographical progress is satisfactory
Her cervicographical status suggests intervention
On repeat examination, her cervicograph should have touched the action line.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
574c048e-6176-4e88-8a5b-77e2baf73a4f
multi
Which of the following condition is characterized by "Golf-hole ureter"?
"Golf-hole ureter" is a characteristic finding in Genitourinary Tuberculosis. It occurs because of the contraction caused by the fibrosis of ureter at the ureteric orifice which leads to widening of its internal opening which gives an appearance of golf hole.
1
Genitourinary Tuberculosis
Ureterocele
Vesicoureteric reflux
Carcinoma of Bladder
Surgery
Kidney and ureter
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single
Hashimoto's thyroiditis-True are A/E
Ans is `d' i.e Orphan Annie eye nuclei Orphan Annie eye nuclei is histological feature seen in Papillary Ca thyroid. "Characteristic histologic features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis include atrophy of thyroid follicles with oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell) of the follicular epithelium and abundant lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate with lymphoid follicles including germinal centres. In addition, there may be varying degrees of fibrosis and foci of squamous metaplasia associated within the atrophic follicles."- Endocrine pathology: differential diagnosis and molecular advances By Ricardo V. Lloyd 1/e p160
4
Follicular destruction
Increase in lymphocytes
Oncocytic metaplasia
Orphan Annie eye nuclei
Surgery
null
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multi
With respect to cardiac arrests occurring during anaesthesia – a) The most common preceding arrhythmia is bradycardiab) The most common cause is failure of ventilationc) Most occur during emergence from anaesthesiad) Most are considered unpreventable and untreatable
Mast cardiac arrests are preceded by bradycardia suggesting that early identification and treatment may prevent complications. Most common cause is failure to provide adequate ventilation. Most of the cardiac arrests occur during induction or maintenance.
4
ac
a
ad
ab
Anaesthesia
null
989c5f12-abb7-489b-ad79-edfe4c12852e
single
Burkitts lymphoma associated with ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., EBV
1
EBV
HHV
HIV
HTLV
Pathology
null
47fb752e-38f8-4fd6-81e2-db2e0e4cb517
single
Sterilising agents include -a) Dry heatb) Ethylene oxidec) Etherd) Alcohole) Chlorhexidine
null
3
ac
a
ab
bc
Microbiology
null
25f7823b-0332-4cf3-b22a-7600d16a4af8
single
A 12-year-old girl begins to limp while playing soccer. She has pain in her right leg and upper right thigh. Her temperature is 102degF. X-ray of the femur reveals that the periosteum is eroded. Assuming that this case is managed as an infectious disease, which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent?
Staphylococcus aureus is a well-known pathogen that is very opportunistic and commonly causes abscess lesions. It routinely may resist phagocytosis by WBCs due to protein A. Osteomyelitis and arthritis, either hematogenous or traumatic, are commonly caused by S. aureus, especially in children. Salmonella are gram-negative. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a common skin flora and is usually not pathogenic. Streptococcus pneumoniae is seldom or never involved in osteomyelitis infections, as is true for L. monocytogenes.
4
Listeria monocytogenes
Salmonella enteritidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus aureus
Microbiology
Bacteria
24a58b89-bffd-4769-9d4e-8367f042157b
single
Rigor mortis results after death is due to
null
2
Failure of acetylcholine to diffuse
Failure of ATP supply
Failure of break down of calcium bridges
None of the above
Physiology
null
7e5016f6-d34f-4899-9723-da622fe0821b
multi
Mediator of acute inflammation not derived from cell is -
. Kinins
3
Histamine
Leukotrienes
Kinins
Cytokines
Pathology
null
2e34289c-c056-4297-9f3d-97d696f46cd9
single
Hyperdynamic circulation is seen in all except:
Ans. c. Cor Pulmonale (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1501, Harrison 18/e p1901)Hyperdynamic circulation is seen in anemia, beriberi & AV fistula, but not in Cor pulmonale."Conditions that lead to a high cardiac output (e.g.. arteriovenous fistula, anemia) are seldom responsible for the development of HF in a normal heart: however, in the presence of underlying structural heart disease, these conditions can lead to overt HF. "--Harrison 19/e p1501Etiologies of Heart FailureDepressed Ejection Fraction (< 40%)Preserved Ejection Fraction (> 40-50%)High-Output States* Coronary artery disease:- Myocardial infarction- Myocardial ischemia* Chronic pressure overload:- Hypertension- Obstructive valvular disease* Chronic volume overload:- Regurgitant valvular disease- Intracardiac (left-to-right) shunting- Extracardiac shuntingQ* Chronic lung disease:- Cor pulmonaleQ- Pulmonary vascular disorders* Non-ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy:- Familial/genetic disorders- Infiltrative disorders* Toxic/drug-induced damage:- Metabolic disorder- Viral* Chagas' disease* Disorders of rate & rhythm:- Chronic bradyarrhythmias- Chronic tachyarrhythmias* Pathologic hypertrophy:- Primary (hypertrophic cardiomyopathies)- Secondary (hypertension)* Aging* Restrictive cardiomyopathy:- Infiltrative disorders (amyloidosis, sarcoidosis)- Storage diseases (hemo-chromatosis)* Fibrosis* Endomyocardial disorders* Metabolic disorders:- ThyrotoxicosisQ* Nutritional disorders (beriberi)0* Excessive blood flow requirements:- Systemic AV shunting0- Chronic anemia0
3
Anemia
Beriberi
Cor pulmonale
AV fistula
Medicine
Miscellaneous (C.V.S.)
487aebed-40d7-4eb8-ab35-57f964992167
multi
The collagen triple helix structure is not found free in which of the following cell organelle?
Collagen is synthesized on ribosomes as pre-pro-collagen. From there it enters the endoplasmic reticulum where the signal sequence is removed from the terminal end and glycosylation and hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues occur, resulting in the formation of procollagen. From endoplasmic reticulum it is secreted extracellularly through the golgi apparatus. Here the extracellular enzymes cleaves the extension peptides and finally the triple helical collagen moleculs assemble into collagen fibers. Ref: Harper's Principles of Internal Medicine, 25th Edition, Page 697 and 29th Edition, Chapter 48 ; Lipppincott Biochemistry, 2nd Edition, Page 40 ; Vasudevan Biochemistry, 4th Edition, Page 240
1
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus
Intracellular vesicles
Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
Biochemistry
null
4415a8ee-4311-4cfc-b731-80afaef92487
single
Dragon or serpent worm is:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dracunculus(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1422-1423; Chatterjee, 12th/e, p. 203)* Dracunculus medinensis is also known as Guinea worm, Serpent worm, Dragon worm, Medina worm.
3
Enterobius
Trichuris
Dracunculus
T. Solium
Microbiology
Parasitology
2b60f445-7664-44d2-b205-ad74102341cf
single
Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with all except:
ANTIPHOSPHOLIPID ANTIBODY SYNDROME (APLA SYNDROME) Clinical Features:1. Vascular Thrombosis2. Pregnancy Morbidity3. Venous thrombosis (More common)4. Aerial thrombosis (Less common) Laboratory Features:1. Elevated anticardiolipin antibodies (IgG or IgM)2. Elevated Anti beta-2 glycoprotein -1 Antibody3. Thrombocytopenia4. Presence of Lupus Anticoagulant (LA) in plasma5. Hemolytic anemia (Coomb's positive)
3
Recurrent aboion
Venous thrombosis
Pancytopenia
Antibody to lupus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Obstetrics
f4faf063-ae40-4c3d-a234-89eac3a6aff9
multi