question
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| exp
stringlengths 1
22.5k
⌀ | cop
int64 1
4
| opa
stringlengths 1
287
| opb
stringlengths 1
287
| opc
stringlengths 1
286
| opd
stringlengths 1
301
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | id
stringlengths 36
36
| choice_type
stringclasses 2
values |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Internal thoracic aery is a branch of ?
|
Internal thoracic aeryIt arises from Ist pa of subclan aery and descends through anterior ends of upper six intercostal spaces lying 1.25 cm lateral to sternal margin.It divides into two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric in 6th intercostal space.Branches of internal thoracic aery are (i) mediastinal branches, (ii) pericardial branches, (iii) sternal branches, (iv) pericardiophrenic branches, (v) anterior intercostal aeries (in upper six spaces), (vi) perforating branches, and (vii) two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric.
| 3 |
Common carotid aery
|
Brachiocephalic trunk
|
Subclan aery
|
External carotic aery
|
Anatomy
| null |
8d156e19-3326-4860-a4dd-73e29300a687
|
single
|
A 55-year-old man presents with a 10 day history of confusion. His friend mentions that he drinks 15 units of alcohol per day. Which of the following strongly suggests a diagnosis of Korsakoff's psychosis: Karnataka 07; Jharkhand 11; KCET 12; PGI 14
|
Ans. Confabulation
| 4 |
Delusional beliefs
|
Poor long-term memory
|
Auditory hallucinations
|
Confabulation
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
864a76b7-7cae-44f4-afe2-a88a79214ade
|
multi
|
Prokaryotes are characterised by -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Absence of nuclear membrane Some differences between Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Character Prokaryotes Eukaryotes Nucleus Nuclear membrane Absent Present Nucleolus Absent Present Deoxyribonucleoprotein Absent Present Chromosome One (circular) More than one (linear) Mitotic division Absent Present Cytoplasm Cytoplasmic streaming Absent Present Pinocytosis Absent Present Mitochondria Absent Present Lysosomes Absent Present Golgi apparatus Absent Present Endoplasm ic reticulum Absent Present Chemical composition Steroid Absent Present Muramic acid Present Absent
| 1 |
Absence of nuclear membrane
|
Presence of microvilli on its surface
|
Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
|
All of the above
|
Microbiology
| null |
d56651c5-21f4-45a8-85b1-724be3825702
|
multi
|
The demonstrated abnormality is seen in paralysis of?
|
In this video, the patient is waking lurching gait or a.k.a duck waddling gait. In paralysis of the hip muscles gluteus medius and minimus , the gait is described as "duck-like waddle(Waddling gait) or Sailors gait or Trendelenburg gait and consists of an inclination to the side on which the weight is born i.e. the normal side(lurching gait on both sides in case of bilateral involvement) B/L dislocation of hip from bih can also produce this type of gait. Gluteus maximux paralysis is seen in polio CROUCHING GAIT is seen. Trendelenburg test:It is impoant to understand the mechanism of this test to understand Trendelenburg gait. Normal two legged stance: Center of the gravity is midway between the two feet. Normal single legged stance: Center of gravity shifts towards the affected side. To allow this to occur efficiently, the pelvis iseffectively pulled up (by the motor) on the unsuppoed side and the centre of gravity is shifted directly over the standing foot. In clinical examination this is revealed by localizing and placing a finger on each anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). As the patient stands on one leg the finger on the ASIS of the unsuppoed leg will rise. This is a normal response and would be recorded as Trendelenburg negative Pathology of the hip joint or paralysis of the gluteus medius and minimus If the pelvis drops on the unsuppoed side, to avoid falling, the person has to throw his body towards the loaded side so that the centre of gravity is again over that foot. In this instance the finger on the ASIS of the unsuppoed leg will fall. Sound side sags: Mnemonic
| 4 |
Gluteus maximus
|
Gluteus medius
|
Gluteus minimus
|
Both 2 & 3
|
Orthopaedics
|
Ohopaedics Q Bank
|
2ea42bb7-21ff-417c-93b5-4179f1277d9a
|
multi
|
Primary Membranous Nephropathy has antibodies against ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phospholipase A2 receptorPrimary Membranous NephropathyPrimary (also called idiopathic) membranous nephropathy is considered to be an autoimmune disease linked to ceain HLA alleles such as HLA-DQA1 and caused in most cases by antibodies to a renal autoantigen.In many adult cases the autoantigen is the phospholipase A receptor.The lesions bear a striking resemblance to those of experimental Heymann nephritis, which, as you might recall, is induced by antibodies to the megalin antigenic complex present in the rat podocyte, which is the antigenic counterpa of the human phospholipase A2 receptor.
| 2 |
Phospholipase Al receptor
|
Phospholipase A2 receptor
|
Phospholipase A3 receptor
|
Phospholipase A4 receptor
|
Pathology
| null |
da593547-dcce-4f8d-9517-9cfbb34f20c3
|
single
|
Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes -
|
Ans. is `c i.e. Mg+2
| 3 |
Na+
|
Ca2+
|
Mg2+
|
None
|
Pharmacology
| null |
8623b3a4-fac4-448b-aa30-90a907a1e4ac
|
multi
|
Not a B cell lymphoma -
|
Mycosis fungoides is a slowly evolving cutaneous T-cell lymphoma occuring in middle aged adult males Ref: Harshmohan textbook of pathology pg:359
| 1 |
Mycosis fungoides
|
CLL
|
Hairy cell leukemia
|
Mantle cell lymphoma
|
Pathology
|
Haematology
|
d51964ae-cf2b-4cb1-93d2-4a7302e1f480
|
single
|
Which is phase - II drug metabolic reaction -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methylation .o Phase I reactions : - Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization, decyclization.o Phase II reactions : - Acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glucoronide conjugation (glucuranization), glycine conjugation, methylation, sulfate conjugation (sulfuranation), nucleotide synthesis.
| 3 |
Oxidation
|
Cyclization
|
Methylation
|
Hydrolysis
|
Pharmacology
|
Pharmacokinetics
|
7618a795-f985-42ea-bb48-0a835135a494
|
single
|
A 48 year old diabetic patient comes to OPD for check up, during the neurological examination - to check retinopathy, doctor checked the light reflexes - On flashing light in front of Left eye - Right pupil constricts but no effect on left, but on flashing ight in front of right eye- right pupil constricts but no effect on left. which of the following defect is present ?
|
Efferent pupillary defect A lesion occurs in the oculomotor nerve's pupilloconstrictor nerve fibers. Results in dilation of the ipsilateral pupil (Due to unattended effect of the intact sympathetic supply). There will be failure of constriction of the pupil to light, light reflex will be preserved in the other eye. Light shone into the contralateral eye will elicit a normal direct response. Afferent pupillary defect Failure of constriction of either pupil to light shone into the affected eye If the visual system is normal in one eye, light shone will produce a normal direct pupillary reponse and also a consensual in the other eye.
| 2 |
Afferent pupillary defect of right eye
|
Efferent pupillary defect of left eye
|
Efferent pupillary defect of right eye
|
Afferent pupillary defect of left eye
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous QBank
|
b8fe6cbb-a3fb-4dbd-8d04-1f580acb7d9e
|
single
|
All of the following results in increased renin secretion except _____
|
The increased amount of Na+ and Cl- reabsorption across macula densa (DCT) is inhibitory to renin secretion. All other factors increase renin secretion. Renin leads to a series of events through the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone pathway that finally, in simple terms, leads to salt and water retention and increases blood pressure. Therefore, it is easy to remember that all factors that cause decreased effective volume, pressure or sodium delivery will increase the renin levels and vice versa. Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells (granular cells) which are epitheloid cells located in the media of afferent aerioles of the glomerulus. Factors that effect renin Secretion Stimulatory Increased sympathetic activity renal nerves Increased circulating catecholamines Prostaglandins Inhibitory Increased Na+ and Cl- reabsorption across macula densa Increased afferent aeriolar pressure Angiotensin II ADH (Vasopressin) Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition Pgno: 693
| 2 |
Renal ischaemia
|
Increased amount of Na+ in DCT
|
Decreased amount of Na+ in PCT
|
Decreased afferent aeriolar pressure
|
Physiology
|
Renal physiology
|
eb90df47-57de-4ac9-aff2-d4879c974cf7
|
multi
|
A case of spontaneous pnemothorax comes to you . What will be the earliest treatment of choice
|
"Open Pneumothorax is one in which full thickness segment of the chest wall has been destroyed and the negative intrapleural pressure sucks air directly through the chest wall defect rather than through the trachea into the alveoli. It occurs most commonly after shotgun blasts explosion with flying debris. The pt. is stabilized by any mechanical covering over the open wound. As soon as convenient a wateight dressing should be placed and an intercostal catheter inseed into the pleural cavity. Early debridement and formal closure of the wound should then be performed." Ref : Schwaz, 7/e p684
| 3 |
IPPV
|
ICD
|
Needle aspiration
|
Wait and watch
|
Anatomy
|
Cardio thoracic surgery
|
eb791e88-835f-413a-9ff0-3db4de6b513d
|
single
|
A man with diabetes insipidus has a glomerular filtration of 155 L/day. Which range most likely represents the upper limit for urine flow rate in this individual if he were not receiving treatment but had free access to water?
|
Ans. C. 15 to 20 L/dayUrine flow rate in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can approach approximately 10% to 13% of the glomerular filtration therefore, for a glomerular filtration of 155 L/day, urine flow could be as much as 15 to 20 L/ day. To maintain this level of urine flow, the individual must consume an equivalent amount of water per day.
| 3 |
1 to 3 L/day
|
5 to 10 L/day
|
15 to 20 L/day
|
30 to 35 L/day
|
Physiology
|
Kidneys and Body Fluids
|
9be31908-3dd5-45a6-ba86-0bb33c9a1247
|
single
|
Number of cells in a morula is ?
|
Once the zygote has reached the two-cell stage, it undergoes a series of mitotic divisions, increasing the numbers of cells. These cells, which become smaller with each cleavage division, are known as blastomere. After the third cleavage, however, blastomeres maximize their contact with each other, forming a compact ball of cells held together by tight junctions. This process of compaction, segregates inner cells, which communicate extensively by gap junctions, from outer cells. Approximately 3 days after feilization, cells of the compacted embryo divide again to form a 16-cell morula (mulberry). Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 3.
| 2 |
8
|
16
|
32
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
112b5a7c-706b-43e3-9ea5-91638d7549e7
|
multi
|
Soft exudates are found in:
|
Ans. All
| 4 |
DM
|
HTN
|
Toxemia
|
All
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
731ed297-a81f-4e64-a3a5-2cc9a0ab4c4c
|
multi
|
All are routes of transmission of Toxoplasma except
|
Toxoplasmosis is usually spread by Ingestion of parasites in undercooked meat Ingestion of oocysts from cat faeces Transplacental Blood transfusion REF:Jawetz microbiology 27th edition pg 708
| 3 |
Blood transfusion
|
Feces
|
Urine
|
Transplacental
|
Microbiology
|
parasitology
|
f2cac4cc-3b6c-4f9a-b956-517d2734eafe
|
multi
|
A thirty-year-man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT /SGPT (AST/ALT) 1230/900 IU/ ml The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg , IgM anti HBc and HBeAg . The most likely diagnosis:
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 548 and 8th/e, p. 544)* Presence of HBsAg, IgM anti HBc and HBeAg suggest the diagnosis of acute hepatitis B with high infectivity. HBsAgAnti HBsAgHBeAg Anti HBeAg Anti HBcAgAcuteHBV (high infectivity)+-+ IgMAcute HBV (low infectivity)+- +IgMChronic HBV (high infectivity)+-+ IgGChronic HBV (low infectivity)+- +IgGRecovery-+-+IgGImmunized-+ -
| 2 |
Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
|
Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
|
Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
|
Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
|
Microbiology
|
Hepatitis Viruses
|
e5fb712c-be0a-4110-a384-479d5292b0a4
|
single
|
The receptors for umami taste are specifically stimulated by:
|
Umami taste is due to activation of a truncated metabotropic receptor, mGluR4, in the taste buds. Glutamate in food may also activate ionotropic glutamate receptors to depolarize umami receptors. Sucrose stimulates sweet receptors; quinine activates receptors for bitter taste. Lysyl taurine is a compound that activates receptors for salty taste. Salt and sour tastes are triggered by activation of ionotropic receptors (ligand-gated ion channel) Sour, bitter, and umami tastes are triggered by activation of metabotropic receptors (GPCRs).
| 1 |
Glutamate
|
Sucrose
|
Quinine
|
Lysyltaurine
|
Physiology
|
Special Senses
|
1bc38409-5e36-4707-a24d-4f1cbcdfea18
|
multi
|
Necrosis with putrefaction is called as:
|
GANGRENE
Gangrene is a form of necrosis of tissue with superadded putrefaction. The type of necrosis is usually coagulative due to ischemia (e.g. in gangrene of the bowel, gangrene of limb). On the other hand, gangrenous or necrotizing inflammation is characterized by primary inflammation provoked by virulent bacteria resulting in massive tissue necrosis. Thus, the end-result of necrotizing inflammation and gangrene is the same but the way the two are produced is different. The examples of necrotising inflammation are gangrenous appendicitis, gangrenous stomatitis (noma, cancrum oris). There are 2 main forms of gangrene—dry and wet, and a variant form of wet gangrene called gas gangrene. In all types of gangrene, necrosis undergoes liquefaction by the action of putrefactive bacteria.
Harsh Mohan Pathology for dental students 7th ed page 43
| 2 |
Desiccation
|
Gangrene
|
Liquefaction
|
Coagulative necrosis
|
Pathology
| null |
0909f35f-2486-4869-bb2b-a4ff3fcb81a9
|
multi
|
The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by :
| null | 2 |
Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora
|
Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5–amino-salicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally
|
Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property
|
Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug
|
Pharmacology
| null |
de2045fd-8e22-4388-8d81-4f2af30d16b7
|
multi
|
In intracellular fluid, which of the following has least concentration?
|
- Calcium is kept very LOW in cytoplasm, hence intracellular fluid doesn't contain much Ca+2 - Calcium is mostly stored in organelles inside cell - E.g. In sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle cell etc.
| 1 |
Calcium
|
Magnesium
|
Potassium
|
Protein
|
Physiology
|
Body fluid compaments
|
f0547fbd-d8fb-472d-973f-c249e69e7548
|
single
|
Increasing severity of mental retardation of male members over generations is a result of -
|
Ans. (d) Trinucleotide repeat mutation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 168-171; 8th/pg 168-171)Increasing severity of mental retardation of male members over generations is a result of "anticipation", seen in disorders caused by Trinucleotide repeat mutation. Eg Fragile X syndrome
| 4 |
Mitochondrial DNA mutation
|
Frameshift mutation
|
Y linked disorder
|
Trinucleotide repeat mutation
|
Pathology
|
Genetics
|
4608c5f0-16c2-41cb-9d91-7c8805d14060
|
single
|
Not useful for diagnosis, in a female of 55 years presenting with postmenopausal bleeding: September 2009
|
Ans. B: Postcoital Test Post-coital/Sim's/Huhner's test is for investigating infeility. Couple is advised to come after 2 hours of intercourse and following things are examined: Number of sperms in mucus aspirated from cervix Type of movement of sperms Quantity, viscosity and fern test of cervical mucus
| 2 |
Transvaginal USG
|
Postcoital test
|
Pap smear
|
Endometrial biopsy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
d6098b2a-718b-4b70-96d4-4313de8e3090
|
single
|
Following drugs are effective in cases of pneumocystis jirovecii EXCEPT
|
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole,which acts by inhibiting folic acid synthesis,is considered the drug of choice for all forms of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.Therapy is continued for 14 days in non-HIV infected patients & for 21 days in persons infected with HIV.Alternative regimens include TMP plus dapsone and clindamycin plus primaquine.Parenteral pentamidine is also effective. Reference:. Davidson edition23rd pg 584
| 4 |
Pentamidine
|
Trimethoprim-dapsone
|
Clindamycin plus primaquine
|
Cefepime
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory system
|
62363969-6b40-4482-8170-3cdd52c00378
|
multi
|
A sublingual cancer in a 65 year old tobacco chewer has involved the mandible. The commando surgery has been planned. All of the following in removed in commando operation except
|
Answer- C. Accessory nerveCommando operationCommando operation is done for oral cancers which have involvement of mandible
| 3 |
Involved mandible
|
Oral cancer
|
Accessory nerve
|
Neck lymphnodes
|
Surgery
| null |
6d108c08-05ac-4be6-b061-feb0cc1e56da
|
multi
|
A 50-year-old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T 11 veebrate was most probably through
|
Communication exists between prostatic &veebral venous plexus through which prostatic carcinoma spread to veebral column.
| 3 |
Sacral canal
|
Lymphatic vessel
|
Internal veebral plexus of veins
|
Superior rectal
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
065b0862-b191-4fa8-9bd5-a3b9eb58ba9b
|
single
|
Intron is not found in which DNA?
|
Introns enable alternative splicing, which enables a single gene to encode multiple proteins that perform different functions under different conditions. For example, a signal the cell receives could cause an exon that is normally included to be skipped, or an intron that is normally spliced out to be left this would not be possible, would not be possible, or at least would be much more difficult, without the presence of introns.
| 2 |
Nuclear DNA
|
Mitochondrial DNA
|
B DNA
|
Z DNA
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of nucleic acids
|
8dbcf523-25d1-42bf-b490-168f34660877
|
single
|
Angiotensinogen is secreted by ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Liver Angiotensinogen (a, - globulin) is produced in liver and is conveed to angiotensin I (A-I) with the help of renin which is secreted by juxtaglonierular cells of afferent aerioles of kidney and lacis cells (located in the junction between the afferent and efferent aerioles). Angiotensin I is conveed to Angiotensin II (A-II) by angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE). Which is located primarily on the luminal surface of vascular endothelial cells, especially in lungs.
| 3 |
Kidney
|
Lung
|
Liver
|
Brain
|
Physiology
| null |
cbaf5ae9-5c17-4cbc-ad96-5527e8cf2827
|
single
|
A 76-year-old woman presents with new-onset syncope. She has also noticed early fatigue on exertion for the past year. On examination, there is a systolic ejection murmur at the right sternal border that radiates to the carotids. Your clinical diagnosis is aortic stenosis.For the above patients, select the characteristic arterial pulse finding.
|
The pulsus tardus of aortic stenosis is the result of mechanical obstruction to left ventricular ejection and often has an accompanying thrill. The characteristic feel of the pulse is caused by a delayed systolic peak.
| 1 |
pulsus tardus
|
pulsus paradoxus
|
hyperkinetic pulse
|
bisferiens pulse
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S.
|
28979f40-eefd-4fcf-a57e-f7e3bed87567
|
multi
|
The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is:
|
Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy is a mitochondrially inherited condition due to one of three types of mitochondrial mutation. It causes acute or sub acute degeneration of retinal ganglion cells and their axons resulting in loss of central vision. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), Chapter 12, "Vision and Neuro-Opthalmology", In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 281
| 4 |
Retinopathy of prematurity
|
Retinitis pigmentosa
|
Retinal detachment
|
Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
499fbc29-6fac-45df-9955-749dc6c8e754
|
single
|
All true regarding fracture lateral condyle humerus except:
|
B i.e. Most common complication of surgically treated cases is cubitus valgus deformity Fracture Lateral Condyle Humerus This is a transphyseal intraaicular injury usually involving immature skeleton of children & adolescent. Salter Harris classified all lateral condylar physeal injuries as type IV injuries but some authors have classifie some lateral condylar fractures (Mulch type 2 i.e. fracture line medial to trochlear groove) as salter Harris type II injury. Although these fractures may be either Salter Harris type IV & type II injury fracture treatment guidelines follow those of type IV injury :.open reduction & internal fixation of displaced intra - aicular fracturesQ with the potential for mild growth disturbance of distal humeral physis. Cubitus varus/Lateral spur formation (pseudo-varus) is the most commonlyQ repoed (-40%) complication following lateral condyle fracture. Delayed union/ nonunion is most fraquent problematic complicationQ. The most common sequela of nonunion with displacement is the development of progressive cubitus valgus deformityQ. Cubitus valgus is much less common after united lateral condylar fractures than cubitus varus. Tardy ulnar nerve palsyQ is a late complication of progressive cubitus valgus deformity occuring in lateral condylar fractures. Growth (physial) arrest, avascular necrosis & fishtail deformity are other rare complications.
| 2 |
Salter Harris type IV injury
|
Most common complication of surgically treated cases is cubitus valgus deformity
|
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs
|
Cubitus varus occur more commonly than valgus
|
Surgery
| null |
a29a996c-8b39-4eac-ba4f-be6c396e718c
|
multi
|
Treatment of choice in Medullary Ca thyroid
|
Surgery is the main therapeutic modality. Total thyroidectomy with bilateral central node dissection and ipsilateral lateral neck dissection if primary tumor is greater than 1cm or central nodes are positive. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no= 477. Reference: Bailey & love, 26th Edition, page no =769.
| 4 |
Total thyroidectomy
|
Total thyroidectomy + Radical neck dissection
|
Total thyroidectomy + Radiotherapy
|
Total thyroidectomy + Prophylactic CCND
|
Surgery
|
Endocrinology and breast
|
a180cbd1-a0d0-498e-9444-7eb663c0280c
|
single
|
A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis
|
Neutropenic colitis is the inflammation and necrosis of the cecum and surrounding tissues complicating the treatment of acute leukaemia.It may involve any pa of the gastrointestinal tract.This is also seen in other forms of cancer treated with taxanes and other high dose chemotherapy.The patient develops right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, tense distended abdomen in the setting of fever and neutropenia.Pneumatosis intestinalis is a specific finding seen in those with neutropenic colitis and ischemia.Rapid institution of antibiotics and nasogastric suction reverse the process.Surgical intervention is reserved for severe cases with evidence of perforation, peritonitis, gangrene, or GI haemorrhage(Ref: Harrison's 18/e 2276)
| 4 |
Appendictis
|
Leukemic colitis
|
Perforation peritonitis
|
Neutropenic colitis
|
Medicine
|
All India exam
|
3a867b95-7484-47d4-83b8-dcbe42878c79
|
single
|
All drugs can be used in the treatment of H. Pylori infection except
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Mosapride RECOMMENDED TREATMENT REGIMEN FOR HELICOBACTER PYLORI:Regimen durationDrug 1Drug 2Drug 3Drug 4First line treatmentRegimen 1OCA (7 days) Regimen 2OCM (2 days)OmeprazoleOmeprazoleClarithromycinClarithromycinAmoxicillinMetronidazole--Second line treatmentRegimen 3OBTM(14days)OmeprazoleBismuthTetracyclineMetronidazole
| 4 |
Omeprazole
|
Metronidazole
|
Amoxicillin
|
Mosapride
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti-Ulcer
|
99004bdd-b87f-45a7-a57b-a0c0d22363f8
|
multi
|
Ondansetron is a potent :
| null | 1 |
Antiemetic
|
Anxiolytic
|
Analgesic
|
Antidepressant
|
Pharmacology
| null |
80048162-f31c-48c9-aa49-bb4c23147e5b
|
single
|
Basanti devi 45 yrs old women presents with hot flushes after stopping of menstruation. 'Hot Flush' can be relieved by administration of following agents :
|
Ans. is a i.e Ethinyl estradiol Hot Flushes : They are the 'hallmark' of menopause. Hot flushes are described as recurrent transient period of flushing, sweating and a sensation of heat often accompanied by palpitations. feelings of anxiety. and sometimes followed by chills. The entire episode lasts no more than 1-3 minutes and recurs 5-10 times / day (can occur upto 30 times a day). Sho term estrogen therapy results in resolution of hot flushes. Hormone therapy Estrogen therapydeg (most effective) Combined estrogen and progestin therapydeg Progestin therapydeg (to be given in those women in whom estrogen is contraindicated) Tibolonedeg Non hormonal prescription medicines :Not FDA approved Clonidinedeg Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor : paroxetine, fluoxetine Serotonin and nor epinephrinedeg reuptake inhibitor : venlafaxinedeg Dopamine antagonist : Veralipridedeg Gabapentindeg Bellergal (combination of ergotamines, phenobarbital and belladona, approved for the treatment of migrain).deg) Meazapine Trazodone Non prescription medicines : Isoflavones (100 mg/day)deg Soy products (60 g/d)deg Vitamin E (800 IU/day)deg Life style changes : Reducing body temperaturedeg Maintaining a healthy weightdeg Smoking cessationdeg Paced respirationdeg Options for the treatment of Vasomotor symptoms
| 1 |
Ethinyl estradiol
|
Testosterone
|
Fluoxymesteron
|
Danazol
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
052b751b-9b8b-492e-b76e-7a010faf2eb6
|
single
|
Which of the following is not a mechanism for resistance to MRSA -
|
In the previous explanation, I have explained the mechanism of antibiotic resistance in general (for all staphylococci species).
Antibiotic resistance specific to MRSA:-
Mechanism of resistance of MRSA
There are three known mechanisms for which Staphylococcus aureus become resistant to methicillin:-
Presence of penicillin-binding protein (PBP 2a) → Most cases
Modification of normal (intrinsic) penicillin-binding protein
Hyperproduction of beta-lactamase → rare
S. aureus strains have four intrinsic penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) which have a high affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics.
PBP2a is an inducible acquired protein that is produced only by MRSA; it is not an intrinsic PBP.
PBP2a has a very low affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics → S.aureus strains containing PBP2a i.e.MRSA are resistant to all beta-lactam antibiotics
Production of PBP2a is chromosomally mediated.
Now see each option of question:
Resistance to MRSA is chromosomally mediated and involves the production of an altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a).
MRSA resistance is not absolutely beta-lactamase dependent. Though altered penicillin-binding protein is involved in most strains, rarely beta-lactamase production is also involved.
Intrinsic resistance is known, that means an alteration in intrinsic PBPs is also one of the mechanisms for resistance in MRSA. (reminding you PBP2a is not an intrinsic PBP, it is an acquired PBP).
| 3 |
Resistance is chromosomally mediated
|
Produced mainly by alteration in PBP's
|
MRSA resistance is absolutely beta lactamase dependent
|
Intrinsic resistance is known
|
Microbiology
| null |
28b02013-9a0c-478b-8689-85d3163dc893
|
multi
|
Neurovascular bundle of anterior compament of leg passes between the tendons of ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., EHL and EDL
| 1 |
EHL and EDL
|
EDL and peroneus teius
|
Tibialis anterior and EHL
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
dcd65800-900f-4edd-86f7-feec3a6de646
|
multi
|
Level of fibrinogen in full term pregnancy at term:
|
Ans b (300-600) Ref: Dutta 6th ed, p. 52Fibrinogen level is raised by 50% from 200-400 mg% in non pregnant to 300-600 mg% in pregnancy. ESR shows a four fold increase in pregnancy. Platelet falls to 15% of pre pregnant level. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be due to increased platelet consumption.Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state.Haematological changes in pregnancyBlood volume is markedly raised to 30 - 40%Plasma volume increases by 40- 50%Red cell volume increases by 20 - 30%Because plasma volume increases by 40-50% and red cell volume only by 20-30% there is haemodilution in pregnancy.Fibrinogen is raised by 50%ESR shows four fold increaseEven though there is increase in activities of clotting factors like X, XI, VIII, VII and II. the clotting time does not show any significant change.There is no significant change in central venous pressure, mean arterial pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. But there is mild increase in pulmonary wedge pressure (no significant change, only mild increase).Normal albumin globulin ratio of 1.7:1 is diminished to 1:1Haemoglobin falls by 2 gm% from the normal non pregnant valueBlood picture shows neutrophilic leucocytosis and it is attributed to the rise in levels of estrogen and cortisol.
| 2 |
200-400
|
300-600
|
150-200
|
None of these
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
|
dfcb5578-a7cc-4316-838b-c29fcca45dc5
|
multi
|
In Hereditary spherocytosis an inherited abnormality is seen in which of the following red blood cell component -
|
Ideal answer is ankyrin (most commonly) but in the given options, spectrin is the best option.
| 4 |
A-globin chain
|
a-globin chain
|
Phosphatidylinositol glycan A
|
Spectrin
|
Pathology
| null |
4979f386-289b-45ce-962f-1cef45340801
|
single
|
Which one of the following is a mechanism underlying the resistance of strains of S. pneumoniae to the widely used antibiotic, ciprofloxacin?
|
Microbial resistance to fluoroquinolones is increasing, and some strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now resistant to ciprofloxacin. The mechanism can involve changes in the structure of topoisomerase IV, one of the "targets" of fluoroquinolones, which inhibit nucleic acid synthesis. Pneumococcal resistance to penicillins is also increasing via changes in penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs). The other mechanisms listed underlie microbial resistance to other antibiotics as follows: sulfonamides (choice B), macrolides (choice C), extended-spectrum penicillins (choice D), and beta-lactams (choice E).
| 1 |
Reduced topoisomerase sensitivity to inhibitors
|
Increased synthesis of PABA
|
Formation of methyltransferases that change receptor structure
|
Structural changes in porins
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti Microbial
|
6b74a3f1-8fbb-4f49-ac8a-4f2a565073c8
|
single
|
During heterosexual intercourse, seminal fluid containing HIV contacts vaginal squamous mucosa. Cells capture virions and transport the virus via lymphatics to regional lymph nodes. Within the germinal centers of these lymph nodes, the virions infect CD4+ lymphocytes and proliferate, causing CD4+ cell lysis with release of more virions, which are taken up on the surface of cells having Fc receptors, allowing continued infection by HIV of more CD4+ cells passing through the nodes. Which of the following types of cells is most likely to capture HIV on its surface via Fc receptors?
|
Dendritic cells are a form of antigen-presenting cell. Dendritic cells in epithelia are known as Langerhans cells, and those within germinal centers are called follicular dendritic cells (FDCs). The FDCs may become infected but not killed by HIV. They have cell surface Fc receptors that capture antibody-coated HIV virions through the Fc portion of the antibody. These virions attached to the FDCs can infect passing CD4+ lymphocytes. Dendritic cells elaborate type I interferons that up-regulate antiviral proteins in neighboring cells. B cells are a component of humoral immunity, and antibody to HIV does not serve a protective function, but allows serologic detection of infection. CD8+ cells are cytotoxic lymphocytes that lack the receptor necessary for infection by HIV. Because they survive selectively, the CD4+:CD8+ ratio is reversed so that it is typically less than 1 with advanced HIV infection. Innate lymphoid cells resemble NK cells, but shape further lymphoid reactions. Langhans giant cells are "committees" of activated macrophages that are part of a granulomatous response. Macrophages are a type of antigen- presenting cell that can become infected by HIV without destruction. Mast cells have surface-bound IgE, which can be cross-linked by antigens (allergens) to cause degranulation and release of vasoactive amines, such as histamine, as part of anaphylaxis with type I hypersensitivity.
| 3 |
B lymphocyte
|
CD8+ cytotoxic lymphocyte
|
Follicular dendritic cell
|
Natural Killer cell
|
Pathology
|
Immunity
|
61df426d-e3aa-4086-9a0d-e623037b9c39
|
multi
|
Which of the following is a feature of first degree AV block?
|
Answer- A. PR interval > 200 msFirst-degree AV block (PR interval >200 ms) is a slowing of conduction through the AV junction.The site of delay is typically in the AV node but maybe in the atria, bundle of His, or His-Purkinje system.In second degree AV block there is an intermittent failure of electrical impulse conduction from atrium to ventricle.Second-degree AV block is subclassified as Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) or Mobitz type II.
| 1 |
PR interval > 200 ms
|
Inversion of T wave
|
Progressive shoenting of PR interval
|
Presence of U wave
|
Medicine
| null |
91ff9388-ae91-4688-a5ec-e7ba1614ca26
|
single
|
Contraindication to DPT is all except -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Local reaction to previous DPT
| 1 |
Local reaction to previous DPT
|
High fever after previous dose
|
Infantile spasms
|
Seizures after previous dose
|
Pediatrics
| null |
d824b580-5865-473f-842d-254d5ee5074b
|
multi
|
In which of the following conditions postmoem lividity is unlikely to develop?
|
If the body is lying in moving water, due to constant movement of the body postmoem lividity may not develop. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 137-9
| 3 |
Drowning in well
|
Postmoem submersion
|
Drowning in a fast flowing river
|
Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
cc8022e9-e006-4fac-8da6-88b9fddcb6f2
|
single
|
X-rays were discovered by
| null | 2 |
Madam curie
|
Roentgen
|
Rutherford
|
Becquerel
|
Dental
| null |
686dc2f7-351e-401d-8093-5a17d6ad1d08
|
single
|
Phenylketonuria is ?
|
Ans. is `b' i.e., AR
| 2 |
AD
|
AR
|
X linked dominant
|
X linked recessive
|
Pathology
| null |
cdfc7e61-d486-4f0a-b470-adec81b7f5c6
|
single
|
Skin smear is negative in which leprosy –
|
There should be no confusion at all; skin is not involved in pure neuritic leprosy, therefore skin smear will always (100%) be negative.
However, you should keep in mind very important fact that skin smear is also negative in most of the cases of Indeterminate and tuberculoid leprosy. But very rarely skin smear may be positive (as compared to neuritic type where skin smear is negative in 100% of cases).
| 2 |
Indeterminate
|
Neuritic
|
Lepromatous
|
Borderline
|
Dental
| null |
29c7f2d3-06df-43d1-80b6-191b5ce69e32
|
single
|
Inverse glaucoma is seen with this condition.
|
Ans. (a) Instillation of Miotics Inverse glaucoma is the acute rise in IOP after instillation of miotics. Instillation of miotics will increase the chances of lens-iris contact and will produce a pupillary block. Mydriatics are given to relieve this pupil block.
| 1 |
Instillation of Miotics
|
Instillation of Steroids
|
Instillation of Mydriatics
|
All of the above
|
Unknown
| null |
485d8a1b-8127-411c-aa39-bab2b1b3067a
|
multi
|
Me thod for waste disposal in small camps-
|
Burial is suited for small camps.(Ref PARK'S textbook of preventive and social medicine 21st edition page no.697)
| 1 |
Burial
|
Tipping
|
Compositing
|
Manure pits
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health
|
00f456f1-452c-46f6-9664-6baecbc24b6b
|
multi
|
In a patient with the burn wound extending into the superficial epidermis without involving the dermis would present will all of the following EXCEPT?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anaesthesia at the site of burn
| 2 |
Healing of the wound spontaneously without scar formation
|
Anaesthesia at the site of burn
|
Blister formation
|
Painful
|
Surgery
| null |
568c53da-9985-4947-a5d8-84795a629ad1
|
multi
|
The color code for the "Regular" size pins in the TMS (Thread Mate System) pins system is
|
The Thread Mate System (TMS) pins
| 1 |
Gold
|
Silver
|
Pink
|
Red
|
Dental
| null |
bc3764dc-8f80-4db1-869c-256381c02fc4
|
single
|
Phospholipids are ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Complex lipidsThe most commonly used classification of lipids is Bloor's classification which is based on the chemical composition. According to this classification lipids are classified as follows :?A) Simple lipids:- These are esters of fatty acids with glycerol or other higher alcohol. These include:?Neutral fats (Triacylglycerol or triglycerides) WaxesB) Compound or complex lipids:- These are fatty acids esterified with alcohol, but in addition they contain other group (prosthetic group). These include phospholipids, glycolipids (glycosphingolipids), lipoprotein.c) Derived lipids:- Derived lipids include compounds (products) obtained after the hydrolysis of simple or compound lipids which possess the characteristics of lipids, eg. fatty acid, steroids, cholesterol, Lipid soluble vitamins and hormones, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, terpens.
| 3 |
Simple lipids
|
Derived lipids
|
Complex lipids
|
None
|
Biochemistry
| null |
68079e23-95cf-4ec2-b782-ba99a5fdb546
|
multi
|
Lab repo --> CSF with N glucose, (upward arrow) protein and marked lymphocytosis diagnosis is
|
TB meningitis (Tuberculous meningitis) is caused by the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. Infection begins elsewhere in the body, usually the lungs, but in about 1 - 2% of cases the bacterium causes TB meningitis. TB meningitis Characteristic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings of TBM include a lymphocytic-predominant pleiocytosis, elevated protein, and low glucose. CSF acid-fast smear and culture have relatively low sensitivity but yield is increased with multiple, large volume samples. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 .
| 1 |
T.B. Meningitis
|
Viral meningitis
|
Paialy Rx pyogenic infection
|
Pyogenic infection
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
2a90578d-9413-4fe9-839f-3db313bf0940
|
single
|
Predominantly osteoblastic metastasis is seen in?
|
ANSWER: (B) Prostate carcinomaREF: With textRepeat from December 2009"Osteoblastic metastasis is less common in breast cancer but are well documented in metastatic prostate cancer" REF: Integration/interaction of oncologic growth - Gary G. Meadows Page 157"Osteoblastic metastasis occurs most commonly in prostate cancer. However other tumours that metastasize to bone or grow in bone e.g. Breast cancer, can also give rise to osteoblastic disease" REF: Textbook of bone metastases - Claude Jasmin, Rodolfo Capanna Page 41"Purely osteoblastic metastasis is most often associated with prostate and breast cancer, but also with Hodgkin's lymphoma, carcinoids and medulloblastomas. Breast cancer metastases are most commonly mixed and less commonly purely osteolytic or osteoblastic. Prostate cancer is characteristically osteoblastic"REF: Differential Diagnosis in Conventional Radiology - Francis A. Burgener, Martti Kormano, Tomi Pudas -Page 110
| 2 |
Renal cell carcinoma
|
Prostate carcinoma
|
Breast carcinoma
|
Thyroid carcinoma
|
Surgery
|
Miscellaneous (Neoplasia)
|
feb44e2a-53d5-4f4d-ba1e-0ad8420d78a4
|
single
|
Bilateral Retinoblastoma ideally is managed by all except
|
Any modality of treatment in each eye will depend upon the extent of the tumor. Generally,in bilateral cases, every effo is made to save at least one eye We do laser photocoagulation to damage the blood supply of the tumour and not laser excision Refer khurana 6/e
| 2 |
Radiation
|
Laser excision
|
Enucleation
|
Thermotherapy
|
Ophthalmology
|
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
|
e4d12c6c-4b11-4c61-a0db-8f06232213ae
|
multi
|
Handedness develops by age of?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 year Handedness is usually established by the 3rd yr. Frustration may result from attempts to change children's hand preference. Variations in fine motor development reflect both individual proclivities and different oppounities for learning. Children who are seldom allowed to use crayons, for example, develop a mature pencil grasp later
| 2 |
2 years
|
3 years
|
4 years
|
5 years
|
Pediatrics
| null |
360dbbe4-023b-4b05-8e94-c183e1fb246f
|
single
|
Which statements are true regarding VENTOSE (Vaccum Extractor)
|
Ans-A i.e. Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal hematomas in the newborn are more frequent than forceps Conditions to be fulfilledHere is a comparison between Ventouse and ForcepsForcepsVentouseCervix is fully dilated and effacedMembrane must be rupturedThe head must be engagedThere should not be undue obstruction (bony or otherwise at or below the obstruction)Baby should be livingUterus should be preferably contracting and relaxingBladder must be emptiedPresentation and position must be suitable oneVertexAnterior faceAfter coming headThere should not be slightly bony resistance below the headThe head of the baby should be engagedCervix should be at least 6 cm dilatedIndicationForcepsVentouseDelay in the second stage It has the same indications as forceps except thatFetal indicationsMaternal indicationsC/IEspecially used inFetal distress (if vaginal delivery can be performed)Cord prolapseAfter coming head of breechLow birth weightPostmaturityMaternal distressPreeclampsiaPost caesareanHeart diseaseFace presentation or after coming head of breechFetal distress or prematurity1. Deep transverse arrestAdvantagesOf Forceps over VentouseOf Ventouse over Forceps1. In suspected pelvic contraction where moderate traction is required (ventouse will be ineffective)Fetal distressPremature babyAnt. Face presentation or after coming head of breechSimplicity of the instrument, less costly and handyCan be used with advantage in unrotated or malrotated occipito posterior positionCan be applied even through incompletely dilated cervixLess traction force (10 kQ/is needed)Can be used safely even when the head remains highLess injury to motherLess fetal complicationsRequires less technical skillContraindications of Ventouse:Fetal distress - When urgent delivery is needed ventouse takes timeFace presentationPrematurity - chance of scalp avulsion & hemorrhage is moreFetal bleeding disorderComplications of Vacuum extractionScalp lacerationCephalohematomaSubgaleal hemorrhageNeonatal jaundiceRetinal hemorrhageVaginal lacerationFeedback from reader's have shown, there is some confusion about the option 'a' & 'b' to clarify them and further support our answer here are two statements from a reputed book on instrumental deliveries - Dennen' s Forceps' Deliveries 3/e, p 178."Although Malmstrom originally described the application of the Ventouse to a scalp prior to full dilatation of the cervix and at any station of the head, the reported subsequent higher incidence of fetal injury has altered the indicationCurrently, use at high stations and with incomplete cervical dilatation is discouraged""the main disadvantages relate to the fetal effects of the instrument. The artificial caput succedaneum appearance is distasteful, but is only cosmetic and usually disappears in several days. The more severe sequela of scalp trauma including abrasions, laceration or even avulsion of the scalp, may occur. Similarly, ecchymosis, subgaleal hemorrhage cephalhematoma, and retinal hemorrhage have been reported."
| 1 |
Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal hematomas in new born are more frequent than forceps
|
Can be applied when the fetal head is above the level of the ischial spine
|
Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps
|
Cannot be used when fetal head is not fully rotated
|
Unknown
| null |
ad43d812-dcd8-4365-af21-00ddbc9bf57b
|
multi
|
A 45-year-old man presented with regurgitated food paicles eaten several days earlier. He has foul smelling breath and occasional dysphagia for solid food. What is the probable diagnosis
|
.OESOPHAGEAL DIVEICULUM can be of two types mainly, *Pulsion diveiculum: a. Pharyngeal pouch through Zenker's or Killian's dehiscence. b. Epiphrenic pulsion diveiculum occurs in the lower oesophagus, usually towards the right side, due to obstruction in the distal oesophagus or due to uncoordinated LOS relaxation. 2. Traction diveiculum: Occurs in mid-oesophagus or in the parabronchial region, is due to mediastinal granulomatous disease like tuberculosis. Investigations * A barium swallow is typical. * Oesophagoscopy and endosonography. * CT Chest as the final evaluation. Treatment * Treat the cause. * Excision of the diveiculum - epiphrenic diveiculectomy. * Cricopharyngeal myotomy or lower oesophageal myotomy with the antireflux procedure is usually required. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 751
| 2 |
Gastric outlet obstruction
|
Zenker's diveiculum
|
Scleroderma
|
Diabetic gastroparesis
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
89306bef-ee71-4d12-96f5-4a95e4190b29
|
single
|
Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on Ultrasongram is not suggestive of malignancy?
|
A i.e. (Hyperechogenesity) Hyperechoic structure on Ultrasonaography suggests a benign lesion. Malignancies always have a Hypoechoic or nonhomogeneous hypoechoic structure. Echogenecity of Thyroid nodules - The echogenecity of thyroid nodule refers to its brightness compared to the normal thyroid parenchyma - A nodule is charachterized as hypoechoic, isoechoic,hyperechoic or aneclwic - Hypoechogenecity is associated with thyroid malignancy. 'Malignancies always have a Hypoechoic or nonhomogeneous hypoechoic structure' Differentiation of thyroid nodules according to ec o- enicit Echogenecity of the Nodule Most likely diagnosis Hyperechoic, isoechoic Adenomatous (colloid) noodule Hypoechoic Follicular adenoma Malignoma Metastasis Mixed Large nodules echogenicity (follicular adenomas as well as colloid nodules) with regressive changes Anechoic Cyst Ultrasound features of carcinoma in a Thyroid Nodule Feature Carcinoma/Malign ancy Hypoechoic/ Nonhomogeneous/ Solid Structure Regressive changes Microcalcificat ions Rare Common Peripheral rim Variable Internal vascularity Common(70-100 percent) Lymph nodes Relatively common Note : A hypoechoic lesion may be benign or malignant, however a hyperechoic lesion is most often benign
| 1 |
Hyperechogenisity
|
Hypoechogenisity
|
Nonhomogenous
|
Microcalcification
|
Radiology
| null |
0241147b-09c4-4fab-9580-4a816e0d2149
|
single
|
An 18-year-old woman presents with a fever and headache. She also complains of vaginal itching and dysuria. When asked, she says that she recently became sexually active. Physical examination reveals tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and red, pustular, painful vesicles on her labia majora. What is the most likely diagnosis?
|
Typical vesicles or pustules or a cluster of painful ulcers preceded by vesiculopustular lesions suggests genital herpes. The pathognomonic findings for herpes infections are painful vesicles. Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 can cause genital herpes, but more than 80% of genital lesions are due to HSV-2. HSV-2 is transmitted by direct contact of the virus with mucosal surfaces or open skin surfaces. Approximately 80% of infected patients are asymptomatic. C/F: The primary infection presents with constitutional symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, and myalgia. Later, genital vesicles may appear that can rupture and leave behind painful ulcers. Other genital symptoms include itching and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
| 3 |
Klebsiella granulomatis infection
|
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
|
HSV-2 infection
|
Treponema pallidum infection
|
Dental
|
Sexually Transmitted Infections
|
f432e379-ff09-4384-b042-758d3f0ffaba
|
multi
|
Patient a known case off alcohol dependence after 3 days of last drink develops change in behaviour that he says he could see 5 cm people throwing stones at him, acts as if he is working in his workshop, frightened pacing in and out of the house with worsening more in the night. The possible diagnosis is
|
Detoxification implies removal of the toxic substance from the body, this can be done by using a drug similar to alcohol and thus benzodiazepine is chosen. This is the main drug used in treatment of alcohol withdrawal despite the problem being simple withdrawal, rum fits or delirium tremens IF LIVER FUNCTION IS WITHIN NORMAL LIMITS CHOOSE CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE, AS IT HAS A SIMILAR STRUCTURAL FORMULA LIKE ALCOHOL IF LIVER FUNCTION IS ABNORMAL CHOOSE LORAZEPAM, AS IT DOES NOT WORSEN LIVER DERANGEMENTS FRONT LOADING=====patient is loaded with benzodiazepines SYMPTOM TRIGGER=== benzodiazepines is offered only as and when the withdrawal symptom arises FIXED DOSAGE====== regular fixed dosage of benzodiazepine is given in divided doses and slowly tapered so that the patient is not on any drugs by the end of 2 weeks Ref. kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.626
| 1 |
Delirium tremens
|
seizure disorder
|
Rum fits
|
wernickes encephalopathy
|
Anatomy
|
Substance abuse
|
eaad465b-9e27-429b-9dfc-07259f58f124
|
single
|
Which is non-lymphatic filariasis?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Loa Loa(Ref: Harrison, 17th/e, p. 1324; 6th/e, p. 196)I. Lymphatic filariasisII. Subcutaneous filariasisIII. Serous cavity filariasis* W. Bancrofti* Loa Loa* M. Ozzardi* B. Malayi* Onchocerca volvulus* M. perstans* B. timori* Mansonella streptocerca
| 1 |
Loa loa
|
Wuchereria bancrofti
|
Brugia malayi
|
Brugia timori
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology
|
cd1d85d1-972a-484d-8ddf-72b8210d23c8
|
single
|
Thoracic duct is also called as ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pecquet duct Thoracic duct is also known as pecquet duct, left lymphatic duct or Van Hoorne canal.
| 3 |
Hensen's duct
|
Bernard's duct
|
Pecquet duct
|
Hoffman's duct
|
Anatomy
| null |
09f458c7-5de7-4c29-a655-4875a9c182e0
|
multi
|
Beta-glucosidase deficiency leads to:
|
Ans. aRef.: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 30th edn.Option aTrueYes, it is due to Beta-glucosidase deficiencyOption bFalseNo, it is due to Hexosaminidase A deficiencyOption cFalseNo, it is due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase or galactokinase deficiencyOption dFalseNo, DM (probably diabetes mellitus) is insulin deficiency or insulin resistanceOption eFalseNo, it is due to Sphingomyelinase deficiency Lysosomal storage diseaseDeficient enzymeGaucher's diseaseBeta-glucosidaseNiemann-PickSphingomyelinaseKrabbe'sBeta-galactosidaseTay SachsHexosaminidase AMetachromatic LeukodystrophyAryl sulfatase AGaucher'sType 1 is most common (other types are type 2, 3, 4).Type 1 is non-neuropathic Gaucher's, as it spares brain and spinal cord.Classical features are: hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, bone abnormalities.Type 2 and type 3 are neuropathic forms.Niemann-Pick diseaseIs of four type-type A, B, C1, C2.Type AHepatosplenomegaly, failure to thrive, pulmonary infections.Cherry red spot in eye.Type BIn mid childhood.Thrombocytopenia, stunting.Type CDystonia, neurological deficits.Speech and swallowing problem.Tay-Sachs disease.Rare, autosomal recessive disease.Due to deficient activity of the enzyme hexosaminidase A. This enzyme hydrolyzes lipids in the neuronal cells. Thus in absence of this enzyme, there is lipid accumulation in the neurons leading to defective functions.Neurological deficit.Seizures, IQ defect, hearing loss, vision loss.Cherry red spot macula in the retina of eye.Krabbe's disease (galactosylceramide lipidosis).Autosomal recessive.By deficiency of enzyme galactosylceramidase.Mutation in GALC gene located on chromosome 14.Leads to clinical condition of leukodystrophy resulting from demylination.Classical features include: developmental delay, sensorineural hearing loss, seizures.
| 1 |
Gaucher's disease
|
Tay-Sachs disease
|
Galactosemia
|
DM
|
Biochemistry
|
Carbohydrates
|
3582276d-01d5-42ac-90f2-63812d4a9bc0
|
single
|
Healthy carrier is seen in all except
|
By type carriers can be classified into Incubatory carriers : Sheds infectious agents during incubation period of disease. Eg. Measles, Mumps etc. Convalescent carriers : Who continue to shed the disease agent during the convalescent period. Eg. Typhoid, Dysentery etc. Healthy carriers : They are victims of subclinical infection who have developed carrier state without suffering from ove disease, but are neveheless shedding the disease agents. Eg. Polio, Cholera, Meningococcal meningitis, Salmonellosis and Diphtheria Reference: Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine; 24th edition; Page no. 101
| 2 |
Polio
|
Measles
|
Cholera
|
Diphtheria
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
2f806fc9-70a8-443f-b7d5-14fbfa566fb2
|
multi
|
True statements is/are - a) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by HHV-6 b) EBV causes lymphomatous lymphoma c) Bronchiolitis is caused by RSV d) Erythema infectiosum have 'slapped cheek' appearance e) Roseola infantum is caused by parvovirus
| null | 2 |
abc
|
bcd
|
bc
|
ad
|
Medicine
| null |
bc6420de-88de-4960-b0c9-3394de53f66e
|
multi
|
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused by -
|
It is believed to be a delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV cell mediated) response to endogenous microbial proteins. Causative allergens are :- (i) Staphylococcus proteins (most common); (ii) Tuberculous proteins and (iii) Proteins of Moraxells axenfeld bacillus and ceain parasistes. Reference : AK Khurana 7th edition page 85
| 2 |
Chlaymydia
|
Staphylococcus
|
Pneumococcus
|
Aspergillus
|
Ophthalmology
|
Conjunctiva
|
e061c5fb-4aa3-4f86-b322-0fb0bcc6e4ab
|
single
|
In Eukaryotes, mRNA is produced by
|
There is only 1 RNA polymerase in prokaryotes. There are 3 eukaryotic RNA polymerases Type Location RNA transcribed Effect of a-amanitin I Nucleolous 18, 5.8, 28 rRNA Insensitive II Nucleoplasm mRNA, miRNA, snRNA Highly sensitive III Nucleoplasm tRNA, 5s rRNA , U6 snRNA Less sensitive
| 2 |
RNA Polymerase I
|
RNA Polymerase II
|
RNA Polymerase III
|
RNA Polymerase IV
|
Biochemistry
|
Molecular Biology
|
4bd03275-5a6c-4fba-901c-c888da3ebae7
|
single
|
One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:
| null | 4 |
Amoxicillin
|
Penicillin G
|
Piperacillin
|
Cloxacillin
|
Pharmacology
| null |
916a75fb-83d9-437e-86e8-23c4fa348def
|
single
|
All of the following are the indications for Hysterectomy, EXCEPT
|
Red degeneration of fibroid occurs usually in second trimester of pregnancy leading to sudden pain and leucocytosis and is managed conservatively Indications of Hysterectomy Fibroid Uterus(40-45%) Most common Endometriosis(15-20%) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Pelvic Inflammatory Bleeding Chronic pelvic pain Tubo-Ovarian Mass Adenomyosis Malignancy Rupture of uterus PPH Uterovaginal prolapse
| 4 |
Prolapse
|
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
|
Endometriosis
|
Red degeneration of fibroid
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Endometrial Carcinoma and Hysterectomy
|
1c048376-682c-4304-916c-8983ccd0981f
|
multi
|
Skin TB from an underlying structure is called:
|
Scrofuloderma: multibacillary type of cutaneous tuberculosis. Earlier known as Tuberculosis cutis colliquativa. It develops as infection into the skin from an underlying focus, usually lymph nodes and occasionally bone, joint. MC in children. MC lymph node involved: Cervical Begins as asymptomatic, bluish red, subcutaneous swellings that persist for several months and overlie an infected gland or joint. Numerous fistulae may intercommunicate beneath ridges of a bluish skin and some may open draining sinuses onto skin surface. Spontaneous healing can occur, but the course is very protracted and leaves typical, cord like scars. Histology shows marked caseating necrosis, in which there are usually numerous bacteria. Antituberculous therapy is usually effective. The differential diagnosis includes Syphilitic gumma, Deep fungal infections, Actinomycosis, and Hidradenitis suppurativa.
| 1 |
Scrofuloderma
|
Lupus vulgaris
|
Erythema nodosum
|
Erythema gangrenosum
|
Dental
|
Mycobacterial Infections
|
50416b01-ed57-4263-91cb-023f98920339
|
multi
|
Regarding spleen, true is:
|
Ans. (d) Derives its nerve supply from celiac plexus* Derived from Dorsal mesogastrium* Superior border is notched* Coeliac plexus is the nerve supply* Phrenic colic ligament prevents downward displacement* Lieno renal ligament contains Splenic Vessels.* Gastro splenic contains the Short gastric vessels
| 4 |
Arises from ventral mesogastrium
|
Inferior border is notched
|
Axis of spleen lies along 9th rib
|
Derives its nerve supply from celiac plexus
|
Surgery
|
Spleen
|
4193b08f-5eb4-41b6-a1a0-7a559158d86a
|
multi
|
Supine hypotension is characteristic of the following trimester of pregnancy:
|
During late pregnancy with the woman in the supine position, the large pregnant uterus rather consistently compresses venous return from the lower body. In about 10 percent of women, this supine compression of the great vessels by the uterus causes significant aerial hypotension, sometimes referred to as the supine hypotensive syndrome. Also when supine, uterine aerial pressure--and thus blood flow--is significantly lower than that in the brachial aery. This may directly affect fetal hea rate patterns. This also occurs with hemorrhage or with spinal analgesia. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 5. Maternal Physiology. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
| 3 |
First trimester of pregnancy
|
2nd trimester of pregnancy
|
3rd trimester of pregnancy
|
Twin pregnancy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
2990d1b6-51c5-4dce-b15f-141ade245d39
|
single
|
Calculate the specificity of the screening test:\r\n \r\n \r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nScreening test results\r\n\r\n\r\nDiseased\r\n\r\nNot diseased\r\nTotal\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nPositive\r\n\r\n\r\n400\r\n\r\n\r\n200\r\n\r\n\r\n600\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nNegative\r\n\r\n\r\n100\r\n\r\n\r\n600\r\n\r\n\r\n700\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nTotal\r\n\r\n\r\n500\r\n\r\n\r\n800\r\n\r\n\r\n1300\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n
|
Specificity is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, that is, the percentage of "true negatives" among those not diseased. In the above question, there are 600 true negatives among 800 who are not diseased. Hence, the specificity is (600/800)x100 = 75 per cent. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine, By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 118, 119.
| 2 |
70 per cent
|
75 per cent
|
80 per cent
|
85 per cent
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
b8ffccf7-bd90-4c58-82a8-7fd2cd3be7ae
|
single
|
Sweat glands of palm can be defferentiated from others by the following :
|
C i.e. Secretion stimulated by emotional stimuli
| 3 |
Apocrine glands
|
High chloride content
|
Secretion stumulated by emotional stimuli
|
Chemical mediators mediators control control the sectetion.
|
Skin
| null |
27c6c505-f43c-4b40-842e-725c91649f90
|
single
|
All are vesiculo bullous lesions except:
|
Ans is 'b' i.e, Scabies [Ref: Harrison 16th/e p. 312 t(49.1) & 15th/ep. 323 t(57.12)
| 2 |
Dermatitis herpetiformis
|
Scabies
|
Pemphigus
|
Pemphigoid
|
Skin
|
Vesiculobullous (Blistering) Disorders
|
c9a82c46-a587-4bfa-b0a0-fb4074edf475
|
multi
|
Split laceration resembles: Jharkhand 11
|
Ans. Incised wound
| 1 |
Incised wound
|
Abrasion
|
Gunshot wound
|
Contusion
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
094f1748-fe39-4771-9899-203ed396f64b
|
single
|
Below knee, amputation is done at the level of
|
In below knee amputation, approximately 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity, an anterior incision of two-thirds of the circumference is created.Posterior flap is taken longerRef: Bailey and love pg: 958
| 2 |
5 cm below tibial tuberosity
|
10 cm below tibial tuberosity
|
15 cm below tibial tuberosity
|
20 cm below tibial tuberosity
|
Surgery
|
General surgery
|
ec739981-5593-46e3-83cb-feeb3efaf707
|
single
|
All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except -
|
Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:182 Risk Factors Category I (For which interventions have been proved to lower CVD risks) 1. Raised LDL cholesterol 2. Reduced HDL cholesterol 3. Atherogenic diet 4. Cigarette smoking 5. Hypeension 6. LVH 7. Thrombogenic factors Category II (For which interventions are likely to lower CVD risks) 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Physical inactivity 3. Increased triglycerides 4. Small dense LDL 5. Obesity Category III (Associated with increased CVD risk that, if modified, might lower risk) 1. Psychosocial factors 2. Increased Lipoprotein a (normal level--0-3 mg/dl) 3. Hyperhomocysteinemias 4. No alcohol consumption 5. Oxidative stress 6. Post-menopausal status Category IV (Associated with increased CVD risk which cannot be modified) 1. Age 2. Male gender 3. Low socio-economic status 4. Family history of early onset CVD
| 3 |
Increased waist-hip ratio
|
Hyperhomocysteinemia
|
Decreased fibrinogen levels
|
Decreased HDL levels
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
f1e8efae-1072-48de-a875-4a0d36f665dd
|
multi
|
True regarding HbA2 is/are?
|
Ans. is'c'i.e., Level is increased in ThalassemiaRef: Ganong 23d/e p. 523-525 https: / /www. aafp.org/ alp / 2009 /08 1 5 /p3 39.html"The hemoglobin electrophoresis with beta thalassemia trait usually has reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2. and increased HbF.However, a normal concentration of HbA2 does not rule out beta thalassemia trait. especially if there was coexistent iron deficiency, which can lower HbA2 levels into the normal range.""Hemoglobin A2 may be increased in beta thalassemia or in people who are heterozygous for the beta thalassemia gene.
| 2 |
It has more capacity to carry oxygen
|
Concentration is more than HbA
|
Level is increased in Thalasemia
|
Consists of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
|
Physiology
| null |
e4130c5f-32a6-41a2-850c-ac5ae613c497
|
multi
|
The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is –
|
Sch can cause dangerous hyperkalemia in paraplegic patients which may cause arrhythmias & cardiac arrest.
| 2 |
Hypercalcemia
|
Hyperkalemia
|
Anaphylaxis
|
Hypermagnesemia
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
3b4ccbe4-f035-4897-a66c-b983bc1239db
|
multi
|
Mechanism of action of benzodiazepine is
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., GABAA - BZD - Cl- channel stimulator Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines (BZDs)* Muscle relaxation is produced by action on medulla.* Ataxia is due to action on cerebellum.* BZDs acts on GABAA receptors.* GABAa receptor has 5 subunits a / b, b, a / g.* GABA binding site is on b. subunit, while BZDs binding site is on a / g subunit.* BZDs receptor increase the conductance of Cl channel.* BZDs do not themselves increase Cl conductance, i.e. they have only GABA facilitatory but no GABA mimetic action. (Barbiturates have both GABA facilitatory and GABA mimetic actions).Effect on CNS* In contrast to barbiturates, BZDs are not general depressant, but exert relatively selective anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects.* The antianxiety action of BZDs is not dependent on their sedative property - with chronic administration relief of anxiety is maintained, but drowsiness wanes off due to development of tolerance.* Stage 2 sleep is increased, while REM, Stage 3 & 4 sleep are decreased.* Nitrazepam is the only benzodiazepine, which increases REM sleep.* Clonazepan and diazepam have more marked muscle relaxant property.* Clonazepam, diazepam, nitrazepam and flurazepam have more prominent anticonvulsant activity than other BZDs.* Diazepam (but not other BZDs) has analgesic action.* Diazepam produces short lasting coronary dilatation on i.v. injection.* Diazepam decreases nocturnal gastric secretion and prevents stress ulcers.
| 1 |
GABAA - BZD - Cl- channel stimulator
|
GABAB - BZD - Cl- channel stimulator
|
BZD receptor stimulator
|
NMDA receptor stimulator
|
Pharmacology
|
C.N.S
|
82f832ca-8d87-4daa-b8de-c69b146e0e84
|
single
|
Exhumation is usually done in the -
|
The whole procedure of exhumation should be conducted and completed in natural day light. Therefore, it is usually started early in morning.
| 1 |
Early morning
|
Evening
|
Night
|
Any time
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
99cfda88-5a34-4931-8606-ef8c3e913088
|
multi
|
Factor useful for clot stabilization-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., XIII Factor XIII:o It is also called fibrin stabilizing factor.o It is necessary for clot stabilization and the cross linking of the fibrin polymer in blood,o A hallmark of this rare deficiency is poor wound healing and abnormal scar formation.
| 4 |
X
|
XI
|
XII
|
XIII
|
Pathology
|
Bleeding Disorders
|
5307f65d-5f76-4db6-abb0-e57162ee4465
|
single
|
A 25-year-old woman is concerned about a lump on the left side of her neck that has remained the same size for the past year. Physical examination shows a painless, movable, 3-cm nodule beneath the skin of the left lateral neck just above the level of the thyroid cartilage. There are no other remarkable findings. Fine-needle aspiration of the mass is performed. Her physician is less than impressed by the pathology report, which notes, "Granular and keratinaceous cellular debris". Fortunately, she has saved her Robbins pathology textbook from medical school. She consults the head and neck chapter to arrive at a diagnosis, using the data from the report. Which of the following terms best describes this nodule?
|
Branchial cysts, also known as lymphoepithelial cysts, may be remnants of an embryonic branchial arch or a salivary gland inclusion in a cervical lymph node. They are distinguished from thyroglossal duct cysts by their lateral location, the absence of thyroid tissue, and their abundant lymphoid tissue. Occult thyroid carcinoma, often a papillary carcinoma, may manifest as a metastasis to a node in the neck, but the microscopic pattern is that of a carcinoma. About 5% of squamous cell carcinomas of the head and neck initially manifest as a nodal metastasis, without an obvious primary site. This patient is quite young for such an event, however. Mucoceles form in minor salivary glands; mucoepidermoid tumors form in salivary glands. The nodule in this patient is in the neck. Paragangliomas are solid tumors that may arise deep in the region of the carotid body near the common carotid bifurcation.
| 1 |
Branchial cyst
|
Metastatic thyroid carcinoma
|
Mucocele
|
Mucoepidermoid tumor
|
Pathology
|
Head & Neck
|
858313d5-1414-4f5a-be4b-5cf214465471
|
multi
|
All the following anti-tubercular drugs are hepatotoxic except
|
Ans. c (Ethambutol). (Ref. Harrison's Medicine - 18th/Table 168-3; KD Tripathi 5th/- 703)# Hepatotoxic AKT drugs- INH- Rifampicin- Pyrazinamide (most toxic)# Nephrotoxic AKT drug- Streptomycin# Neurotoxic drugs- Cyclosporin- INH# Drug Contraindicated in AIDS- ThiacetazoneOptic neuritis, the most serious adverse effect of ethambutol.
| 3 |
Rifampicin
|
INH
|
Ethambutol
|
Pyrazinamide
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti Microbial
|
b52b30b1-3e6f-4e46-9fab-f0f7d6398003
|
multi
|
To define a health problem, prevalence of corneal xerosis should be -
|
- corneal xerosis a serious problem in which cornea appears dull, dr and non wettable and eventually opaque. - To define a health problem, prevalence of corneal xerosis should be more than 0.01%. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:616 <\p>
| 3 |
>1%
|
>0.5%
|
>0.01%
|
>0.05%
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Nutrition and health
|
71469280-7a6a-441d-9e24-073e604edff2
|
single
|
All are the disadvantages of cast restoration except
|
Diadvantages
In the restoration of a small carious lesion, an inlay is not very conservative.
Rely on the bulk of the buccal and lingual cusps for resistance and retention form (wedge the cusps).
Number of appointments are more.
Necessity for a cementing medium.
MDS Prep Bytes( Cast Restoration – Inlay)
| 2 |
Not conservative
|
Less number of appointments
|
Relies on the bulk of tooth structure for resistance and retention form
|
Necessity for a cementing medium
|
Dental
| null |
1fd603b2-4a09-46e5-ad12-148b1a78bb3c
|
multi
|
Predominant ion in saliva is
|
During saliva production, K+ and Hco3- are secreated of which Hco3- >> K+ secreted.
| 3 |
Potassium
|
Sodium
|
Bicarbonate
|
Chloride
|
Physiology
| null |
d1350fed-0537-4206-b5f0-88f3f357d636
|
single
|
The most common histological finding of endometrium in DUB is:
|
Endometrial pattern in DUB
• Normal secretory endometrium = 60%
• Hyperplastic endometrium = 30%
• Irregular shedding
• Irregular ripening = 10%
• Atrophic pattern
Since normal secretory endometrium is not given in options so, we will see 2 most common which is hyperplastic endometrium.
| 2 |
Hypertrophic
|
Hyperplastic
|
Cystic glandular hyperplasia
|
Dysplastic
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
e8c88d74-3a03-4707-b587-b53ce0f41d40
|
single
|
A 3 year old child presents with fracture of femoral shaft had immobilized on traction constantly for two months. The next step of management is:
|
A i.e. Hip Spica and if necessary internal fixation
| 1 |
Hip Spica and if necessary internal fixation
|
Callow traction for 2 months
|
Open reduction and Kuntscher's lover leaf intrame?dullary nailing or plating
|
Traction by Thomas splintA i.e. Hip Spica and if necessary internal fixation
|
Surgery
| null |
e1779cad-2a4c-4291-bab2-46b71011bce8
|
multi
|
All of the following can be routes of opioid administration except:
|
Opioid can be given intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, oral , intrathecal , epidural . Opioid patch can be applied which is transdermal route.
| 4 |
Intravenous
|
Intramuscular
|
Oral
|
Intradermal
|
Anaesthesia
|
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
|
50edfbcf-4cc3-4366-921a-295b5ce8f8af
|
multi
|
Most impoant pre-requisite in sanitary latrine is :
|
Water seal Water seal: The most impoant pa in a sanitary latrine is the water seal. The water seal is the distance between the level of water in the trap & the lowest point in the concave upper surface of the trap It has two impoant functions It prevents access by flies It prevents escapes of odors & foul gases The depth of water seal in the RCA latrine is 2 cm
| 2 |
Squatting plate or slab
|
Water seal
|
Smooth slope of pan
|
Adequate drainage
|
Surgery
| null |
03f88005-783b-4366-8c3b-209dd74e49a3
|
single
|
Boxer's ear is ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hematoma ear Hematoma of AuricleIt is the collection of blood between the auricular cailage and its perichondrium.It is often the result of blunt trauma seen in boxers, wrestlers and rugby players, so called Boxer's ear.Extravasated blood may clot and then organize resulting in typical deformity of cauliflower ear.
| 1 |
Hematoma ear
|
Malformed ear
|
Ear with absent tragus
|
Lacerated ear
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
bc352044-e459-4241-829a-8f5ebf42e7a1
|
single
|
Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in non cirrhotic poal fibrosis (NCPF)?
|
MORPHOLOGIC FEATURES. Grossly, the liver is small, fibrous and shows prominent fibrous septa on both external as well as on cut surface forming irregular islands in the liver. Histologically, the salient features are as under: i) Standing out of poal tracts due to their increased amount of fibrous tissue in triad without significant inflammation. ii) Obliterative sclerosis of poal vein branches in the poal tracts (obliterative poovenopathy) TEXT BOOK OF HARSH MOHAN SIXTH EDITION PAGE.630
| 4 |
Fibrosis in and around the poal tracts
|
Thrombosis of the medium and small poal vein branches
|
Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the poal tracts
|
Bridging fibrosis
|
Pathology
|
G.I.T
|
3db10f7f-cd19-4c6d-84b5-ea78ca014095
|
multi
|
Death sentence can be awarded by:
|
Sessions cou
| 4 |
First class magistrate
|
Second class magistrate
|
Chief Judicial magistrate
|
Sessions cou
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
506b1c4e-109c-477a-9dc9-c445286458ca
|
single
|
Stones that are common with infection is:
|
Ans. (a) StruviteRef: Campbell Urology 1194* Struvite stones (Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate) occur only in association with urinary infection by urea -splitting bacteria. Proteus mirabilis the most common organism associated with infection.
| 1 |
Struvite
|
Xanthine stone
|
Cysteine stone
|
Calcium oxalate stones
|
Surgery
|
Kidney & Ureturs
|
41ad6c3d-f2ce-4cff-9a7f-e2430dcc9a99
|
single
|
Postmoem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of
|
B i.e. Drowning in fast flowing water (river)
| 2 |
Drowning in well
|
Drowning in a fast flowing river
|
Postmoem submersion
|
Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool.
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
af4968ec-9ac0-41fb-9441-705fe68c4f3f
|
single
|
Fetichism is:
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Use of objects of sexual gratification * Fetishism : A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm. For exmaple underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.Necrophilia:* In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies.* It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell, and coldness act as stimulants.* Sexual perversions -These are persistently indulged sexual acts in which complete satisfaction is sought and obtained without sexual intercourse. These includea) Sadism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased from acts of physical cruelty or infliction of pain on ones partner. It is seen more commonly in men. To obtain sexual gratification, the sadist may bite, beat, whip, produce cuts on the victim, etc.b) Lust murder: In extremes of sadism, murder serves as a stimulus for the sexual act and becomes the equivalent of coitus, the act being accompanied by erection, ejaculation, and orgasm.c) Necrophagia: (Necros =corpse; phagia = to eat): This is extreme degree of sadism in which the person after mutilating the body, sucks or licks the wounds, bites the skin, drinks blood, and eats the flesh of his victim to derive sexual pleasure.d) Masochism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased by the suffering of pain. Masochists get pleasure from being beaten, abused, tortured, humiliated, enslaved, degraded, or dominated by their sexual partner.e) Necrophilia: In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies. It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell and coldness act as stimulants.f) Fetishism: A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm, eg underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.g) Transvestism = Eonism: A transvestite (trans = opposite, vista = clothing) is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex. His dress, manner, occupational interest, and associations are all designed to increase his feeling of being a woman. There is no hormonal disturbance or genital abnormality.h) Masturbation = Onanism = Ipsation is the deliberate self-stimulation that effects sexual arousal. In males, it is done by moving the penis against a bed or other object. In females, finges are gently and rhythmically moved over clitoris or labia minora or steady pressure is applied over these parts with several fingers or whole hands (it is an offence when done in public).i) Exhibitionism (Sec 294IPC): It is a willful and intentional exposure of the genitalia in a public place while in the presence of others to obtain sexual pleasure. May or may not be associated with masturbation (punishment = 3 months + fine).j) Voyeurism = Scoptophilia = Peeping tom: Sexual gratification is obtained by looking at the sexual organs of other persons, watching the act of sexual intercourse, or witnessing undressing by a woman.k) Frotteurism: Sexual satisfaction is obtained by rubbing against persons in crowd. If they attempt intercourse, they have a premature ejaculation or they are impotent. It is an uncommon perversion and rarely occurs alone.l) Undinism: In this, the sexual pleasure is often obtained by witnessing the act of urination by someone of the same or opposite sex.m) Indecent assault (Sec 354 IPC) is any offence committed on a female with the intention or knowledge to outrage her modesty. Usually, the act involves the sexual part of either or is sexually favored. In such assaults, a man may try to kiss a woman, press or fondle with her breasts, touch or expose the genitalia or thighs, try to put a finger in her vagina, play with vulva.# A medical practitioner can be accused of indecent assault if he examines a female patient by stripping her clothes without her consent or even with her consent in the absence of a female attendant.# Such assaults are punishable under Sec 354 IPC, upto 2 years imprisonment and/or fine.n) Uranism: General term for perversion of the sexual instinct.o) Satyriasis: Incessant sexual desire.p) Priapism: Painful penile erection in absence of sexual desire.
| 3 |
Desire of being identified with the opposite sex
|
Sexual intercourse with dead bodies
|
Use of objects of sexual gratification
|
Sexual gratification by suffering of pain
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Sexual Offenses
|
50aa8601-effc-4163-95e3-d2e8cec5ce16
|
single
|
In the flowchart shown below regarding pathophysiology of polycystic ovarian syndrome, A is
|
Elevated Estrone causes endometrial hyperplasia.
| 2 |
Inhibin - B
|
Oestrogen
|
Progesterone
|
Androstenedione
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
267b5ed7-19e0-45b6-8cbe-1f89cae40d0b
|
single
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.