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Which of the following feature is not included in Bergmann's Triad?
Bergmann triad consists of:- Cerebral--Delirium, confusion, convulsions, disorientation,stupor,coma Cutaneous--Petechial rashes on chest Cardiopulmonary--Dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, Hypoxia, hypoxemia It is seen in Fat embolism syndromme.
4
Disorientation
Cyanosis
Coma
Bradycardia
Orthopaedics
Lower Limb Traumatology
374161ca-5c39-4f79-b5c2-e1a986e6261b
single
All of the following are true about sargramustin except
It is a GM - CSF analog. Filagastrim & lenogastrim are G - CSF analogs.
1
It is a G - CSF analog
It is used in cases of neutropenia
Chronic usage can lead to bone pain
It can also lead to flu like symptoms
Pharmacology
null
06b46a13-01ec-481a-b46b-b19b2ca615b1
multi
The direct retainer of choice when the principle abutment tooth has Lost its periodontal support is:
null
3
Embrasure clasp
Ring clasp
Multiple circlet clasp
Onlay clasp
Dental
null
5a73b902-aced-4fd5-b17d-7a11be372dfc
single
Which of the following is the most common type of congenital cataract?
Lamellar cataract is the most common type of congenital cataract. It occur in a zone of fetal nucleus surrounding the embryonic nucleus. In this type, the main mass of the lens internal and external to the zone of cataract is clear except for small linear opacities like spokes of wheel seen towards the equator. Coronary cataract is a common form of cataract occurring during pubey. It involves either the adolescent nucleus or deeper layer of the coex. The opacity have a regular radial distribution in the peripheral of lens encircling the central axis. Ref: Ophthalmology By A. K. Khurana page 188
2
Sutural cataract
Lamellar cataract
Coronary cataract
Embryonic nuclear cataract
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Kayser fleisher ring is characteristic of?
KANSWER: (B) Wilson diseaseREF: Khurana 4th ed page 181 & 410, Yanoff 2nd ed page 278"Kayser-Fleischer rings are caused by copper deposits, and are indicative of Wilson's disease, whereas Fleischer rings are caused by iron deposits and are indicative of keratoconus"In Wilson's disease, an autosomal recessive disorder, defective copper metabolism develops as a result of a deficiency of the enzyme ceruloplasmin, A brown corneal ring, at the level of Descemet's membrane (Kayser-Fleischer ring), is characteristic, as is the development of a typical "sunflower" cataract. This is a disc-shaped polychromatic opacity in the pupil zone anteriorly, with petal-like spokes that extend toward the periphery.Kayser-Fleischer ring is a golden brown ring which occurs due to deposition of copper under peripheral parts of the Descemet's membrane of the cornea.
2
Hemosiderosis
Wilson disease
Tyrosinemia
Hereditary cataract
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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Short 4th metacarpal is a feature of
Seen in pseudohypoparathyroidism and Pseudo pseudo hypoparathyroidism.
3
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism
Radiology
null
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single
In Spondylolisthesis, which of the following is NOT useful investigation?
(a)-AP view will show changes only in last stages-inverted Napoleon hat sign all other are more important for diagnosis and management. CT and MRI are required in all cases.
1
Anteroposterior X-ray
Lateral view X-ray
CT
MRI
Orthopaedics
Spinal Injuries
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Drug used in remodeling of hea in congestive cardiac failure are all EXCEPT -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Digoxin
3
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Digoxin
Aldosterone antagonist
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Which statement best describes a functional role for the lateral hemispheres of the cerebellum?
From a functional point of view, the cerebellum is divided into three pas: 1. Vestibulocerebellum (or flocculonodular lobe) Consist of the nodulus in the vermis and the flanking flocculus in the hemisphere on each side. This lobe is phylogenetically the oldest pa of the cerebellum and has vestibular connections concerned with equilibrium and eye movements. 2. Spinocerebellum Formed by the rest of the vermis and the adjacent medial poions of the hemispheres. This region receives proprioceptive input from the body as well as a copy of the "motor plan" from the motor coex. By comparing plan with performance, it smooths and coordinates movements that are ongoing. 3. Cerebrocerebellum Includes the lateral poions of the cerebellar hemispheres. They interact with the motor coex in planning and programming movements.
3
Control and coordinate movements of the axial muscles, as well as the shoulder and hip
Control movements that involve distal limb musculature
Function with the cerebral coex to plan movements
Stimulate motor neurons through their connections to the spinal cord
Physiology
Motor System
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Cough and sputum in COPD are primarily due to changes in
Large airways- Cigarette smoking often results in mucus gland enlargement and goblet cell hyperplasia, leading to cough and mucus production that define chronic bronchitis, but these abnormalities are not related to airflow limitation.Small airways- The major site of increased resistance in most individuals with COPD is in airways <=2 mm diameter.Lung parenchyma- Emphysema is characterized by destruction of gas-exchanging air spaces, i.e., the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1701
1
Large airways
Medium airways
Small airways
Lung parenchyma
Medicine
Respiratory system
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multi
Enzyme papain is used?
ANSWER: (A) To decrease intestinal gas produced during digestive processREF: KDT 6th ed page 649, Katzung 12th ed pagePapain It is a proteolytic enzyme obtained from raw papaya. It is used as digestant. Its efficacy after oral ingestion is doubtful
1
To decrease intestinal gas produced during digestive process
As Anti helminthic
To treat Herpes zoster
To treat infected wounds in nucleus pulposus
Pharmacology
G.I.T
d6dd2c57-a2d9-4452-91a3-7685af64a9cc
single
The intra - abdominal pressure laparoscopy should be set between :
10 - 15 mm of Hg
2
5-8 mm of Hg
10 - 15 mm of Hg
20 - 25 mm of Hg
30 - 35 mm of Hg
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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A 20-year-old 70kg man is put on fast perioperatively. 100gm of glucose is given per day as 5% dextrose solution. This is to
During starvation, the body is faced with an obligate need to generate glucose to sustain cerebral energy metabolism (100 g of glucose per day). This is achieved in the first 24 hours by mobilising glycogen stores and thereafter by hepatic gluconeogenesis from amino acids, glycerol and lactate. This eventually leads to accelerated loss of lean tissue (the main source of amino acids for hepatic gluconeogenesis) IV Glucose provided for surgical patients who are fasted has a significant protein- sparing effect.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 10
3
Meet daily calorie requirement
Meet daily fluid requirement
Sustain cerebral energy metabolism
Sustain anabolic status
Surgery
General surgery
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When a drug binds to the receptor and causes action opposite to that of agonist this is called as?
ANSWER: (C) Inverse agonistREF: Goodman and Gillman 11th edition page 14-15, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_agonistIndirect repeat from June 2008An inverse agonist is an agent that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces a pharmacological response opposite to that agonist.A neutral antagonist has no activity in the absence of an agonist or inverse agonist but can block the activity of eitherAn agonist increases the activity of a receptor above its basal level while an inverse agonist decreases the activity below- the basal level.A partial agonist binds to the receptor and causes action submaximal to that of agonist
3
Complete Agonist
Partial Agonist
Inverse agonist
Neutral antagonist
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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All of the following statements regarding idiopathic edema are true, EXCEPT:
Idiopathic edema is an ill-defined syndrome characterized by intermittent pitting edema secondary to Na and water retention. There is only very little evidence to prove that sodium retension is occuring under the influence of estrogen. Patients present with swelling of legs, hand, rarely face along with abdominal bloating. It occurs almost exclusively in women and is much worse with prolonged standing. Cyclic idiopathic edema is associated with conditions such as lipedemia, chronic venous insufficiency and lympheodema. Ref: Diseases of The Kidney and Urinary Tract By Robe W. Schrier, 8th Edition, Pages 2151-2158 ; Lymphedema Management: The Comprehensive Guide for Practitioners By Joachim Zuther, 2nd Edition, Page 104
1
It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
It is not related to menstrual cycle
It is associated with an increased water retention in upright position
In some cases ACEI is useful
Medicine
null
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A major step in the pathogenesis of listeriosis is -
null
4
The formation of antigen-antibody complexes with resultant complement activation and tissue damage
The release of hyaluronidase by L. monocytogenes, which contributes to its dissemination from local sites
The antiphagocytic activity of the L. monocytogenes capsule
The survival and multiplication of L'. monocytogenes within mononuclear phagocytes and host epithelial cells
Microbiology
null
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Calculate the prevalence if incidence is 2 cases per 1,000 population per year and mean duration is 4 years-
prevalence is calculated as the product of incidence and mean duration of a disease in a community.during a specific period,here it is given as 4 *2 cases per 1000 population. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 67
1
8 mases per 1,000 population
2 cases per 1,000 population
0.5 cases per 1,000 population
32 cases per 1,000 population
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Hyperacusis is defined as:
Sensation of discomfo or pain on exposure to normal sounds. Seen in injury to nerve to stapedius and in case of congenital syphilis (Hennebe sign)
2
Hearing of only loud sound
Normal sounds heard as loud and painful
Completely deaf
Ability to hear in noisy surroundings
ENT
null
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Which of the following is teratogenic: March 2011
Ans. C: Vitamin APharmacological doses of vitamin A are teratogenic and in pregnancy the daily dose must not exceed 6000-8000 IU.Synthetic analogues of vitamin A:TretinoinIsotretinoinEtretinateAcetretinTeratogenic drugsDrugs and medications:- Tobacco Caffeine- Drinking alcohol (ethanol) (fetal alcohol spectrum disorder),- Isotretinoin (13-cis-retinoic acid)- Temazepam- Nitrazepam- Aminopterin or methotrexate- Androgenic hormones Busulfan- Captopril, enalapril- Coumarin- Cyclophosphamide- Diethylstilbestrol-Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin)Lithium- Methimazole- Penicillamine- Tetracyclines- Thalidomide- Trimethadione- Flusilazole- Valproic acidEnvironmental chemicals:- Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons)- Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)- Polychlorinated dibenzodioxins a.k.a dioxin,- Organic mercuryIonizing radiation:- Atomic weapons fallout (Iodine-131, uranium)- Background radiationDiagnostic x-rays- Radiation therapyInfections:- Cytomegalovirus- Herpes virus- Parvovirus B19- Rubella virus (German measles)- Syphilis- Toxoplasmosis An easy way to remember maternal infections is TORCH: Toxoplasmosis, Other agents, Rubella, CMV and HSV.Metabolic imbalance:- Alcoholism Diabetes- Folic acid deficiency- Iodine deficiency- Hypehermia
3
Folate
Cyanocobalamin
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Pharmacology
null
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single
In a patient suspected to be diagnosed with Rabies, a sample of corneal smear was taken. Which of the following investigations can be done from the specimen?
Ans. (b) Immunofluorescence test style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )Lab diagnosis of rabies*RT-PCR: detecting the viral nucleic acid especially on biological fluids (saliva, cerebrospinal fluid, tears) and skin biopsy (ante mortem) and brain samples (post mortem)*Serum and spinal fluid are tested for antibodies to rabies virus*Skin biopsy specimens are examined for rabies antigen in the cutaneous nerves at the base of hair follicles*Immunofluorescent antibody staining of the epithelial cells on the corneal impression test (FAT)
2
RT PCR
Immunofluorescence test
Negri body visualization
Virus isolation
Pathology
Central Nervous System
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MAO inhibitors should not be used with:
Pethidine should be avoided in patients receiving MAO inhibitors, because both these drugs can result in very high levels of serotonin. MAOI inhibits breakdown of serotonin and pethidine inhibits reuptake of serotonin. This result in excess excitation characterized by agiation, delirium, headache, rigidity, hyperpyrexia and coma. When both of these drugs are used together respiratory, cardiovascular depression and coma can result due to the inhibition of hepatic microsomal enzymes by MAOI, resulting in an increase in the level of pethidine. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 431 - 2
1
Pethidine
Pentazocine
Buprenorphine
Morphine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Renal GFR is best measured by
C i.e. Tc99 DTPA 99mTcDMSA (gold standard) and 99mTc- GFIA are morphologic agents. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) labelled with technetium-99m is most satisfactory tracer for imaging renal anatomyQ (e.g. in renal ectopia and anomalies like horseshoe kidney), differentiating functional renal masses (with radiotracer uptake) from pseudomassesQ (abscess, cysts or tumors which show no uptake of DMSA and appear photon deficient on renal images) and detecting infection and scarringQ. 99Tc-DMSA scan is most accurate (non invasive) method for estimating distribution of function between two kidneysQ. It is used to locate functional renal tissue, to find out scar or non-functioning areas of renal parenchymaQ (or to differentiate renal coex form soft tissue masses in or near kidney) and to estimate the functional contribution of each abnormal kidney. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) labelled with technetium-99m is most satisfactory tracer for imaging renal anatomyQ (e.g. in renal ectopia and anomalies like horseshoe kidney), differentiating renal masses (with radiotracer uptake) from pseudomassesQ abscess, cysts or tumors which show no uptake of DMSA and appear photon deficient on renal images) and detecting infection and scarringQ. 99mTc-MAG3 (preferred), 99mTc-DTPA (preferred in emergency) and 1311OIH, (ohoiodohippurate) are functional agents. Functional agents are used for assessment of renal perfusion, renal plasma flow, glomerular filtration and tubular secretion and are applied in dynamic radionuclide studies of urinary tract obstruction. (obstructive uropathy), vesico-ureteral reflux, renovascular hypeension, and acute renal failure. (anuria/oliguria). Radionucleide that are excreted almost entirely by glomerular filtration can be used to estimate GFR and these are - Tc99 in- labelled DTPA (diethylenetriaminepenta acetic acid)Q and Chromium 51- labelled - EDTAQ
3
Tc99 DMSA
Tc99 Pyrophosphate scan
Tc99 DTPA
Creatinine clearance
Radiology
null
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Which cranial nerve carries parasympathetic fibers?
Ans. A. Vagus nerveThe only cranial nerves that transmit parasympathetic fibers are the oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.Parasympathetic flow is cranio-sacral flow carried by cranial nerves: 3,7,9,10 and the sacral nerves: S-2,3,4. These nerves carry the preganglionic fibres to their respective ganglia.
1
Vagus nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Abducent nerve
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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A 27-year-old man presents with chest pain and feeling unwell. He describes cough with blood-tinged sputum, chills, and fever of 2 days' duration. Physical findings reveal dullness and moist rales in the left lower chest. His CXR is shown in Figure given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The diagnosis is pneumonia. There is consolidation of the left lower lobe. The increased density, presence of air bronchogram, and the silhouetting of the left diaphragm point to a parenchymal lesion. Pneumococcal infection, as in this patient, is still the most common etiology, although other bacterial infections such as Klebsiella, Streptococcus, or, Staphylococcus is often encountered. Viral and arthropod-borne diseases are also seen.
1
pneumonia, left lower lobe
atelectasis, left lower lobe
PE
tuberculosis
Medicine
Respiratory
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In malignant hyperthermia the increased heat production is due to :
Ans. is 'a' i.e. increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ionsRef Harrison 16th/e p 105 (15th/e page 92)Malignant hyperthermiais caused by inherited abnormality in sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscleDue to this there is rapid increase in intracellular calcium levels in response to certain drugs.This leads toIncreased muscle metabolismElevated temperatureRhabdomyolysisRigidityAcidosisCardiovascular instabilityIt is often fatalDrugs which cause malignant hyperthermia areHalothane*Succinyl choline*Phenothiazines Haloperidol*
1
Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions
Thermic effect of food
Increased sympathetic discharge
Mitochondrial thermogenesis
Pathology
Endocrine
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In exocrine pancreatic, cancer, the commonest tumor marker to be elevated in
.Investigations for exocrine pancreatic tumors includes * Liver function tests: Serum bilirubin, direct component (conjugated) is increased (van den Bergh's test). Serum albumin is decreased with altered A : G ratio. Prothrombin time is widened. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased * U/S abdomen to see gall bladder, liver, growth, CBD size (normal diameter is < 10 mm), lymph node status, poal vein, ascites. * Barium meal shows widened duodenal "C" loop-- pad sign. Reverse 3 sign is seen in carcinoma--periampullary region. * Spiral CT scan (ideal) shows poal vein infiltration, retroperitoneal lymph nodes, size of the tumour. * ERCP with pancreatic juice cytology or brush biopsy is useful. MRCP to see biliary tree. * CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen) is a useful tumour marker. * Coeliac and superior mesenteric angiogram can be done to reveal tumour circulation and invasion. * Gastroduodenoscopy reveals ampullary tumour and biopsy can also be taken. * Endosonography is useful to see the invasion and size, to stage and to do EUS guided FNAC. * Urine for bile salts (Hay's test), bile pigments (Fouchet's test), urobilinogen. ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 5,pg no 634
4
CA 125
CEA
CA 15-3
CA 19-9
Surgery
G.I.T
e325dab2-1ab5-4b17-adb6-c8db2c66d1fd
single
Most common complication of cardiac catheterization?
the most common complication of cardiac catherisation is vascular bleeding or hematoma formation Risks of cardiac catheterization are: Bruising. Bleeding.(vascular bleeding) Hea attack. Stroke. Damage to the aery, hea or the area where the catheter was inseed. Irregular hea rhythms (arrhythmias) Allergic reactions to the dye or medication. Kidney damage. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 433
3
Arrhythmia
Hypeension
Vascular bleeding
Contrast reaction
Medicine
C.V.S
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In a healthy subject, when is the PO2 of the blood leaving a pulmonary capillary lower than the PO2 in the alveolus served by that capillary?
Blood spends about 0.75 sec in a pulmonary capillary; and under normal conditions, all of the gas exchange in the vessel occurs early. Because equilibrium is reached so rapidly (less than 0.25 sec for both O2 and CO2), blood at the end of a pulmonary capillary has the same P02 and PCO2 as alveolar gas, and gas ex­change is said to be "perfusion limited." Although increasing the cardiac output decreases the transit time of blood through the capillaries, only the most strenu­ous forms of exercise (cardiac output increases of 5 to 6 times above normal) result in a few mm Hg differ­ence between alveolar and end-capillary gas tensions. Gas exchange at a high altitude or anywhere in a normal lung (apex to base) remains perfusion limited.
4
While breathing a low O2 gas mixture
While performing an exercise in which the cardiac output doubles
At the base of the lungs, where perfusion exceeds ventilation
None of the above
Unknown
null
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Mid-diastolic Murmur with presystolic accentuation is typically seen in
An opening snap, mid-diastolic rumbling murmur, presystolic accentuation and loud first hea sound are all characteristic of mitral stenosis.The mid-diastolic rumble (murmur) stas with the opening snap and may extend to the S1 with presystolic accentuation.Ref: Harrison's 18/e. p1930, 1931.
1
Mitral stenosis
Mitral Regurgitation
Aoic stenosis
MVP
Medicine
All India exam
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multi
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is elevated in:
null
3
Pernicious anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Polycythemia vera
Plummer Vinson syndrome
Medicine
null
7f5bed0c-f1d8-4f77-b27f-e1baac4e2e4f
single
Sinus tachycardia is seen in
null
4
Beta blocker therapy
Athletes
Hypothyroidism
Severe anaemia
Medicine
null
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Mucous glands are absent in
INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:359 Vagina Mucous membrane The epithelium rests on dense connective tissue that is highly vascular,many veins being present .the tissue is rich in elastic fibres.no glands are seen in the mucosa,the vaginal surface being kept moist by the secretions if glands in the cervix of the uterus
3
Cervix
Esophagus
Vagina
Duodenum
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Blood transfusion is indicated in following condition with sickle cell anemia
Indications of Blood transfusion in Sickle Cell Anemia Frequent sickling episodes Twin pregnancy Poor obstetrical outcome Severe anemia Blood transfusion replaces the abnormal cells with normal red cells The objective of transfusion is to keep the hematocrit value above 25% and concentration of Hb-S under 50% Prophylactic transfusions during pregnancy remain controversial Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics; Sheila Balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Page no: 291
4
Frequent sickling episodes
Twin pregnancy
Poor obstetrical outcome
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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Shentons line is seen in X ray of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e, Antero-posterior pelvis with both hips Plain X - ray for hip pathology:* The minimum required is an anteroposterior x-ray of the pelvis showing both hips and a lateral view of each hip separately.* The two sides can be compared: any difference in the size, shape or position of the femoral heads is important.* With a normal hip Shenton's line, which continues from the inferior border of the femoral neck to the inferior border of the pubic ramus, looks continuous; any interruption in the line suggests an abnormal position of the femoral head.* Narrowing of the joint 'space' is a sign of articular cartilage loss, a feature of both inflammatory and non- inflammatory arthritis.
1
Antero-posterior pelvis with both hips
Antero-posterior shoulder
Lateral cervical spine
Lateral lumbosacral spine
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around Hip
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During normal conversation, sound heard at 1meter distance is
At a distance of 1 m, intensity of Whisper = 30 dB Normal conversation = 60 dB Shout = 90 dB Discomfo of the ear = 120 dB Pain in the ear = 130 dB Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 21.
1
60dB
80dB
90dB
120dB
ENT
Ear
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single
The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is:
Sluder's neuralgia or the anterior ethmoidal syndrome is pain around the bridge of the nose radiating into the forehead. It is said to originate from the middle turbinate (pa of ethmoid bone) pressing on the deted septum. This is a rare cause of headache and also k/a contact point headache.
2
Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening
ENT
null
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single
Most suggestive of anti moem hanging ?
Most suggestive of antemoem hanging is Salivary dribbling . There is no specific gold standard to distinguish between antemoem and postmoem hanging.However presence of : Veical salivary dribble mark from the dependant angle of mouth. The phenomenon of Le Facies sympathique. Hyperemia and echymosis of margins of ligature mark Horizontal tear of the intima of carotid aery at level of ligature with infiltration around. are considered as ante moem features of hanging. But obvious salivary dribble mark could be detected only in 56% of cases
1
Salivary dribbling
Congestion of lungs
Ligature marks
Petechial hemorrhages
Forensic Medicine
Hanging and strangulation
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All of the following are radio-opaque stones except: September 2009
Ans. C: Uric acid
3
Calcium
Struvite
Uric acid
Cystine
Surgery
null
02e15cf9-0ca7-47a9-8269-fc557e11ef2d
multi
In CA stomach, T4 lesion means
T1a Tumour involves lamina propria T1b Tumour involvessubmucosaT2 Tumour invades muscularis propriaT3 Tumour involves subserosa T4a Tumour perforates serosaT4b Tumour invades adjacent organsBailey and love 27e pg: 1135
1
Involved till serosa
Involved till lamnia propria
Involved till submucosa
Involved till muscularis propria
Surgery
G.I.T
bfad0536-1c5d-4dde-ad97-d85ddfccc861
single
A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -
Normal ERG with an abnormal EOG is charachteristic of best's vittelliform dystrophy.
2
Stargardt's disease
Best's Vitelliform Dystrophy
Retinitis Pigmentosa
Cone- Rod Dystrophy
Ophthalmology
null
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preservative used for this suture material?
Catgut suture are available in the form of plain catgut or chromic catgut preservative used is ISOPROPYL ALCOHOL life span for plain catgut is 10-14 days chromic catgut is -40-60days Plain catgut is usually having shoer absorption periods and is absorbed more rapidly in infected areas. The percentage of collagen in the catgut suture often determines the quality of the suture. Higher percentages of collagen allow for: superior tensile strength, longer absorption times, and lower reactions in vivo. Plain catgut is available in ivory colour. ref : bailey and love 27th ed
4
saline
ethanol
formalin
isopropyl alcohol
Surgery
All India exam
dcada2c3-3282-43ec-9848-b36d9114e46d
single
Following are TVS findings of Adenomyosis except
Adenomyosis is characterised by myometrial cyst, which is most specific sign.
2
Transition zone > 12mm thick
Endometrial cyst
Heterogenous myometrium
Subendometrial striations.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibres are not carried by which cranial nerve -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., V o Parasympathetic origin ---> Cranio-Sacral (III, VII, IX, X, S2-S4) o Sympathetic origin --> Dorso-lumbar (T1 to L2 or L3)
2
III
V
VII
X
Pharmacology
null
b5a410d5-95cb-4aa0-9147-04b99c82af82
single
The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is -
null
4
Penicillin.
Rifampicin
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Microbiology
null
3ba454af-1ffc-4b0e-a5b1-d4c0bf84c719
single
Pontiac fever is caused by -
null
1
Legionella
Listeria
Scrub typhus
Leptospira
Microbiology
null
29115237-8465-4cf3-9133-b2c13acd2098
single
In glycolysis, the conversion of 1 mol of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to 2 mol of pyruvate results in the formation of:
null
4
1 mol NAD+ and 2 mol of ATP
2 mol NAD+ and 4 mol of ATP
2 mol NADH and 2 mol of ATP
2 mol NADH and 4 mol of ATP
Biochemistry
null
c1acb3d2-9b77-46c4-a62b-aae373baa64f
single
A previously healthy 30-year-old man has been unable to open his right eye.Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely to be affected?
Opening of the eye is related to Levator Palpebrae Superioris - IIIrd nerve affected so L.P.S will not be able to function Leading to PTOSIS
1
3
4
6
7
Medicine
Intracranial Space Occupying Lesion
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single
Best tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
Ans. B. CA 19-9. (Ref. H - 17th / pg. 483)Best tumor marker for pancreatic cancer is CA 19-9.CA 19-9 as a Marker for Pancreatic Cancer# CA 19-9 is not recommended for use as a screening test for pancreatic cancer. The use of CA19-9 testing alone is not recommended for use in determining operability or the results of operability in pancreatic cancer.# CA19-9 determinations by themselves cannot provide definitive evidence of disease recurrence without seeking confirmation with imaging studies for clinical findings and/or biopsy.# Present data are insufficient to recommend the routine use of serum CA19-9 levels alone for monitoring response to Rx. However, CA19- 9 can be measured at the start of Rx for locally advanced metastatic disease and every one to three months during active Rx.Tumor markersAlkaline phosphataseMetastases to bone, liver, Paget disease of bone, seminoma (placental ALP).A-fetoproteinNormally made by fetus. Hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor, testicular cancer, mixed germ cell tumor (co-secreted with p-hCG).b-hCGHydatidiform moles and Choriocarcinomas (Gestational trophoblastic disease), testicular cancer.CA-15-3/CA-27-29Breast cancer.CA-19-9Pancreatic adenocarcinoma.CA-125Ovarian cancer.CalcitoninMedullary thyroid carcinoma.CEACarcinoEmbryonic Antigen. Very nonspecific but produced by ? 70% of colorectal and pancreatic cancers; also produced by gastric, breast, and medullary thyroid carcinomas.PSAProstate-specific antigen. Used to follow prostate adenocarcinoma. Can also be elevated in BPH and prostatitis. Questionable risk/benefit for screening.S-100Neural crest origin (e.g., melanomas, neural tumors, schwannomas, Langerhans cell histiocytosis).TRAPTartrate-Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP). Hairy cell leukemia--a B-cell neoplasm.GI Tumor Markers (New)# Thymidine Synthase (TS), Dihydropyrimidine Dehydrogenase (DPD), and Thymidine Phosphorylase (TP) as Markers for Colorectal Cancer. TS, DPD, and TP are tissue markers that have been used to predict response to Rx of established carcinomas and thus are not useful for screening.# Microsatellite Instability (MSI) as a Marker in Colorectal Cancer. MSI ascertained by PCR is not recommended at this time to determine the prognosis of operable colorectal cancer nor to predict the effectiveness of 5-FU adjuvant chemotherapy.# 18q-LOH/DCC as Markers for Colorectal Cancer# Assaying for loss of heterozygosity (LOH) on the long arm of chromosome 18 (18q) or DCC protein determination by immunohistochemistry should not be used to determine the prognosis of operable colorectal cancer, nor to predict response to therapy
2
CA 125
CA 19-9
CEA
AFP
Medicine
Oncology
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single
A 76-year-old woman presents to the office for evaluation of symptoms of weight loss, anxiety, and palpitations. The symptoms started 1 month ago, and are involuntary. She has no prior history of anxiety or palpitations and her only medical history is hypertension for which she is taking losartan.On examination, the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, heart rate is 100/min and regular. On auscultation the heart sounds are normal and the lung clear. There is a thyroid goiter, warm skin, and a fine tremor in her hands. Which of the following is the most likely cardiac finding?
Atrial fibrillation is particularly common in older individuals with hyperthyroidism. Thyroid disease may affect the heart muscle directly or there may be excessive sympathetic stimulation. Common symptoms of thyrotoxic heart disease include palpitations, exertional dyspnea, and worsening angina. Pericardial effusion, and aortic insufficiency are not usual finding in thyrotoxicosis, and the cardiac output is increased in hyperthyroidism, not decreased.
3
prolonged circulation time
decreased cardiac output
paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
pericardial effusion
Medicine
C.V.S.
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single
Anatomic characteristics of the spleen include?
The aerial supply to the spleen is derived from the splenic aery, which arises within the hepatic aery as the terminal branches of the celiac trunk. The spleen is located with in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach protruding in pa into the omental bursa. The blood vessels enter the spleen in the splenic pedicle, the mesenteric attachment to the wall of the omental bursa, which contains the blood vessels to the spleen. The splenic aery, after it divides into two terminal branches, gives rise to the sho gastric aeries and the left gastroepiploic aery.
4
Blood supply to the spleen includes branches from the left renal aery
The spleen is wholly contained within the lesser sac
The spleen lies in the retroperitoneal space
The splenic aery is a terminal branch of the celiac trunk
Anatomy
null
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single
During extractions of maxillary second molar a 0.5mm perforation is created in maxillary sinus. The appropriate treatment would be to:
null
4
Perform cald well-Luc procedure
Smoothen the bone and place suture across socket
Pack the opening with iodoform gauge and allow to heal by secondary intention
No treatment necessary
Surgery
null
27d259dc-3353-421f-9e4d-620d05c8a72f
multi
Which of the following amino acid is both polar and ionic?
4 Classification of amino acids Polarity & Solubility Hydrophobic amino acid Tryptophan , Tyrosine , Methionine , Leucine , Valine , Isoleucine , Alanine , Phenylalanine , Proline , Glycine Hydrophilic amino acid Neutral amino acid Threonine , Serine , Tyrosine , Cysteine , Asparagine , Glutamine Acidic amino acid Aspaic acid , Glutamic acid , Asparagine , Glutamine Basic amino acid Histidine , Hydroxy lysine , Arginine , Lysine Side chain contentAliphatic groupAromatic groupHydroxy groupSulphur groupGlycine Alanine Valine LeucineIsoleucine Proline Methionine Tyrosine Tryptophan Phenylalanine Histidine Tyrosine Serine Threonine Cysteine Methionine Imino acidBasic groupAcidic groupAmides of acidic groupProline Histidine Arginine Lysine Aspaate Glutamate Asparagine Glutamine Basis of metabolism Ketogenic amino acidsGlucogenic amino acidsBoth glucogenic & ketogenic amino acidsEssential amino acidsLeucine Lysine Methionine ThreonineValine Isoleucine PhenylalanineTryptophan Semi essential amino acids -Histidine Arginine -Non-essential amino acids Hydroxylysine Arginine Alanine Asparagine Aspaate Cysteine Glutamate Glutamine Glycine Proline Hydroxyproline Serine Tyrosine (Refer Q 23)
1
Arginine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Leucine
Anatomy
All India exam
db7fb0c1-eed3-45c7-b1a0-9842bf346bd5
multi
A 26-year-old female presents for ante natal visit. She has a history of aboion in last pregnancy due to neural tube defect in the fetus. What is the amount of folic acid that should be prescribed to this female?
*All women of childbearing age and who are capable of becoming pregnant should take 0.4mg (=400mcg) of folic acid daily. *If pregnancy is planned in high-risk women(previously affected child), supplementation should be staed with 4mg (=4000microgram) of folic acid daily, beginning 1 month before the time of the planned conception. REF NELSON 19TH ED.
4
4 micrograms per day
40 micrograms per day
400 micrograms per day
4000 micrograms per day
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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single
The serine proteases are all except
They are enzymes with a serine residue at the active site and most of the proteolytic enzymes belong to this group, e.g. trypsin, chymotrypsin, clotting factors. Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 44
4
Elastase
Chymotrypsin
Trypsin
Pepsin
Biochemistry
nutrition and digestion
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multi
All are true about the Sympathetic vasodilator system except
There is no tonic activity in the vasodilator fibers(sympathetic), but the vasoconstrictor fibers to most vascular beds have some tonic activity Sympathetic noradrenergic fibers end on blood vessels in all pas of the body to mediate vasoconstriction- So sympathectomy cause vasodilation Resistance vessels in skeletal muscles are innervated by vasodilator fibers, which, although they travel with the sympathetic nerves, are cholinergic (sympathetic cholinergic vasodilator system) Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:556
2
It originates from the frontal coex
It has a strong basal tone
The fibres to skeletal muscles are cholinergic
After sympathectomy, the blood vessels dilate
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
af2a31fe-26c1-42c4-81ff-8181729e517a
multi
Exploratory laparoscopy was performed on a 34-year-old male, following a successful emergency appendectomy. Which of the following anatomic relationships would be seen clearly, without dissection, when the surgeon exposes the beginning of the jejunum?
The second part of the duodenum is crossed anteriorly by the transverse mesocolon, a relationship that can be seen when the beginning of the jejunum is exposed by lifting the transverse colon superiorly. The posterior relationships of the second part of the duodenum and the portal vein cannot be seen without some dissection. The third part of the duodenum is not related anteriorly to the hilum of the left kidney.
4
The second portion of the duodenum is related anteriorly to the hilum of the right kidney.
The superior mesenteric artery and vein pass posterior to the third part of the duodenum.
The portal vein crosses anterior to the neck of the pancreas.
The second part of the duodenum is crossed anteriorly by the attachment of the transverse mesocolon.
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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single
Enterocele formation is a common complication of
BURCH COLPOSUSPENSION COMPLICATIONS Hemorrhage during dissection of the space Urethra and bladder neck injury due to injudicious placement of sutures Osteitis pubis voiding difficulty detrusor instability Enterocele formation Failure and recurrence D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:404,6th edition
3
Suburethral sling surgery
TVT
Burch colposuspension
TOT
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Urogynecology
df552a3d-f426-4684-92ec-44931c38973a
single
The most constant early symptom of uterine rupture during labour is :
Pain
2
Shock
Pain
Vaginal bleeding
Cessation of labour
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
9081ca20-ab9a-47b2-8c68-f5b715677429
single
All of the following factor stimulate angiogenesis in a fetus Except:
D i.e. Interferon Alpha (INFa) 'Ocular Angiogenesis' by Tombran - Tink and Barnstable (2006)/297; Lasers in Ophthalmology (2003)/ 2251 Interferon alpha is an anti- angiogenic' agent that suppresses angiogenesis. 'Interferon alpha is an anti- angiogenic agent. Interferon alpha 2a causes dramatic involution of hemangiomas and inhibits iris neovascularization in models of ischemic retinopathy'.
4
Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor (bFGF)
Interleukin - 8 (IL8)
Interferon Alpha (INFa)
Ophthalmology
null
23beed0a-aec0-41e6-b8da-683801cb01d9
multi
In a patient with renal cell carcinoma with a thrombus in IVC renal vein, which is the best investigation for diagnosis?
Investigation of choice in RCC-CT scan. REF : DAVID SUTTON 7th ed
1
CT scan
Angiography
Colour doppler imaging
IVP
Radiology
null
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single
Chronically lymphoedematous limb ispredisposed to all of the following except -
null
3
Thickening of the skin
Recurrent soft tissue infections
Marjolin's ulcer
Sarcoma
Surgery
null
7a194632-0eb6-46b2-9df0-a0859b957cff
multi
What is implied, if a drug has more renal clearance than the GFR
If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR, then tubular secretion must be present.
2
Drug is reabsorbed in the tubules
Drug is secreted in the tubules
Drug is excreted in bile
Drug is neither secreted, nor reabsorbed
Physiology
null
5e4773af-58ec-499b-a7dd-05706db54de0
single
QT prolongation is seen in all, except:
Answer is B (Digitalis toxity) QT interval is shoened in digitalis toxity and not prolonged QT interval Is measured from the beginning of Q wave to the end of T wave Q It is the time taken for total ventricular events i.e. depolarization as well as repolarization 2 Normal QT interval should not exceed 42 seconds
2
Hypothermia
Digitalis toxicity
Hypocalcemia
Romanowand syndrome
Medicine
null
f7979a38-a308-4bb3-bbc7-56463f9f5ed8
multi
The surface marking of the arch of aorta is as follows -
Arch of Aorta surface marking Right end of sternal angle Centre of manubrium sterni Sternal end of left second costal cartilage These points when connected lies behind the lower half of manubrium sterni.
1
Behind the manubrium sterni
2nd intercostal space
3rd intercostal space
Left 2nd costal cartilage
Anatomy
null
cac221d5-4ef8-4322-8572-85d3c6e02608
single
Malaria protection comes from all Except
The geographic distributions of sickle cell disease, hemoglobins C and E, hereditary ovalocytosis, the thalassemias, and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency closely resemble that of falciparum malaria before the introduction of control measures.This similarity suggests that these genetic disorders confer protection against death from falciparum malaria. For example, HbA/S heterozygotes(sickle cell trait) have a sixfold reduction in the risk of dying from severe falciparum malaria. Hemoglobin S-containing RBCs impair parasite growth at low oxygen tensions, and P. falciparum-infected RBCs containing hemoglobins S and C exhibit reduced cytoadherence because of reduced surface presentation of the adhesin PfEMP1. Parasite multiplication in HbA/E heterozygotes is reduced at high. Ref: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 248 Malaria; Page no: 1371
4
G6PD deficiency
Thalassemia
Sickle cell anemia
Acanthocytosis
Medicine
C.V.S
e034059f-7d45-4d68-bca5-82cb95f416d9
multi
Which is not a product of Pentose phosphate pathway
null
4
Glyceraldehyde 3 PO4
NADPH
Sedoheptulose PO4
CO2
Biochemistry
null
967dfea1-5672-4837-a9a3-14f839b4d193
single
Which enzyme Deficiency leads to serious side effects with 5FU
Ans. b. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenaseRef: Goodman Gilman 13th E/P 11825FU is metabolized by Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase in liver and other tissues including tumor cells.Deficiency of this enzyme in patients can lead to a decreased metabolism and increased toxicity of 5FU like severe diarrhea and shock leading to death as well.Deficiency of this enzyme can be diagnosed in lymphocytes by assays or by comparing ratio of 5FU to its metabolite in plasma.
2
CYPD29
Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase
Uridine di phosphate
Purine
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
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single
TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones?
Thyrotropin releasing hormone stimulates the release of TSH, GH and prolactin. Patients with acromegaly shows a rise in serum growth hormone levels following an injection of TRH. TRH stimulation test is also used to monitor the therapeutic response of patients with acromegaly to trans sphenoidal surgery, pituitary radiation, or somatostatin analog treatment. Increase in growth hormone following injection of TRH is also seen in patients with depression, chronic renal failure and cirrhosis. Ref: Principles and Practice of Endocrinology and Metabolism By Kenneth L. Becker, Page 165; Diagnostic Function Tests in Chemical Pathology By P. T. Lascelles, Page 144; Textbook Of Pharmacology By Seth, 3rd Edition, Page 8; The Pituitary By Shlomo Melmed, 3rd Edition, Page 316; Endocrinology: Basic and Clinical Principles By Shlomo melmed, 2nd Edition, Page 181
4
PTH
Insulin
ACTH
Growth hormone
Physiology
null
0d41f8ef-4dfa-44e0-990f-8abbb09de804
single
Effect of environment on genes is called?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Euthenics Eugenics Science which aims to improve the genetic endoment of human population. o That is improving the quality of the human species or a human population by genetic manipulation. o Eugenis may be : 1. Negative Discouraging reproduction by persons having genetic defect or presumed to have inheritable undesirable traits this includes aboions, sterilization & other methods family planing. 2. Postive Eugenics -> Encouraging reproduction presumed to have inheritable desirable trait. For example, in vitro-feilization, cloning, egg transplantation etc. Euthenick Euthenics deal with human improvement through altering the external environment (environmental manipulation). It includes education, prevention and removal of contagious disease and parasites, education regarding home economics, sanitation and housing.
3
Positive Eugenics
Negative Eugenics
Euthenics
Enthenics
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
566c1b9c-344b-478e-80eb-3e2103ad0f2a
multi
Screening age for trachoma is:
Ans. b. 1-9 years (Ref: Trachoma Surveillance Annual Report 2008; Park 23/e p308)Screening age for trachoma is 1-9 years.School children are screened and mass treatment with azithromycin is given in areas found to have active trachoma (TF >10% in children aged 1-9 years).Trachoma control includes all the components of the SAFE strategy, which are integrated with other control of blindness activities.Health education is also provided.School children are screened and mass treatment with azithromycin is given in areas found to have active trachoma (TF >10% in children aged 1-9 yearsQ).TrachomaCaused by Bedsonian organism, Chlamydia trachomatis belonging to PLT (Psittacosis, Lymphogranuloma, Trachoma) group.Chlamydia is epitheliotropic and produce intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called H.P, (Halberstedter Prowazeki) bodies.Source of infection is conjunctival discharge of the affected person.Incubation period is 5-21 daysQ.Clinical picture of trachoma is determined by the presence or absence of infectionQ. Mostly the picture is complicated by secondary infection. Conjunctival signs in TrachomaCongestion of upper tarsal and fornix conjunctivaQConjunctival follicles:Look like boiled sago grains, more common on upper tarsal conjunctiva and fornixQSometimes follicles maybe seen on bulbar conjunctiva (Pathognomic of trachoma)QCentral part of each follicle is made up of mononuclear histiocytes, few lymphocytes and large multinucleated giant cells called Leber's cellsQ.Presence of Leber's cells and signs of necrosisQ differentiate trachoma follicle from other forms of follicular conjunctivitis.Papillary hyperplasiaQConjunctival Scarring: Linear scars present in sulcus subtarsalis is called Arlt's lineQConcretions formed due to dead epithelial cells and inspissated mucus in the depressions called glands of HenleQ.Corneal signs in TrachomaSuperficial Keratitis in upper partHerbert follicles (Typical follicles in limbal areaQ)Pannus:It is infiltration of cornea associated with vascularization in upper partQThe vessels are superficial and lie between epithelium and Bowman's membraneIn progressive pannus, infiltration of cornea is ahead of vascularizationQIn regressive pannus, vessels extend a short distance beyond the area of infiltrationQCorneal ulcer at advancing edge of pannusHerbert pitsQ (oval or circular pitted scars, left after healing of Herbert follicles in limbal area)Corneal opacityGrading of TrachomaMcCatlan's ClassificationStage IIncipient trachoma or stage of infiltration* Hyperemia of palpebral conjunctiva* Immature follicles on superior tarsus* Mild superficial keratopathy and pannusStage IIEstablished trachomaor stage of florid infiltration* Superficial tarsal follicular reaction with mature follicles (IIa)* Marked papillary hyperplasia (IIb)* Pannus formation* Limbal follicles* Superior comeal subepithelial infiltratesStage IIICicatrizing trachoma or stage of scarring* Scarring along with follicles indicating persisting active infectionStage IVHealed trachoma or stage of squeal* Disease has become quiet, so there are no follicles* Squeal include trichiasis, Entropion, corneal opacity, xerosis, blindness, corneal ulcer
2
Below 5 years school child only
1-9 years
9-14 years
5-15 years
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Programmes in India
ce6eb330-bf18-4218-a87b-3ad9db5fb840
single
Inventory of material means which one of the following -
Inventory management is a discipline primarily about specifying the shape and placement of stocked goods. It is required at different locations within a facility or within many locations of a supply network to precede the regular and planned course of production and stock of materials. The concept of inventory, stock or work-in-process has been extended from manufacturing systems to service businesses and projects, by generalizing the definition to be "all work within the process of production- all work that is or has occurred prior to the completion of production." In the context of a manufacturing production system, inventory refers to all work that has occurred - raw materials, paially finished products, finished products prior to sale and depaure from the manufacturing system. In the context of services, inventory refers to all work done prior to sale, including paially process information. Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inventory
4
List of items procured
Stock distributed during a period
The quantum of material ordered for
Stock on hand at any given time
Social & Preventive Medicine
Social science, Mental health & Genetics
d25d9dd4-d39a-4aab-b6cd-d0af2803c032
single
All are the histological features of Pulmonary hypeension -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thrombi in pulmonary vasculature Pulmonary Hypeension o In pulmonary hypeension pathological changes are seen from main pulmonary aeries to aerioles. They are : (a) Aerioles and small pulmonary aeries : (i) Medial hyperophy (ii) Thickening and reduplication of elastic lamina. (iii) Plexiform pulmonary aeriopathy in which intraluminal tuft of capillary formation occurs in dilated thin walled aeriolar branches. (b) Medium sized Pulmonary aeries : (i) Medial hyperophy; which is not marked in secondary pulmonary hypeension. (ii) Concentric intimal thickening (iii) Adventitial fibrosis (iv) Thickening and reduplication of elastic laminae. (c) Large Pulmonary aeries : o Atheromatous deposits o Vasoocclusive disease itself may lead to pulmonary hypeension.
3
Capillaritis of alveolar septa
Saddle thrombi in pulmonary trunk
Thrombi in pulmonary vasculature
All
Pathology
null
21e4dc0f-c463-4627-bde7-eabdb622a139
multi
First secondary ossification center appears in
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lower end of femur Site given in question Secondary ossification center appears at Lower end of femur 9th month intrauterine life Upper end of tibia At bih Upper end humerus 1/2 -1 year of age Lower end of fibula 1 year of age
1
Lower end of femur
Upper end of humerus
Lower end of fibula
Upper end of tibia
Forensic Medicine
null
f9711229-c919-4ec7-a9cd-b0016b124e7d
single
DNA covering material in a virus is called as?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Capsid Structure of virus . The extracellular infectious virus paicle is called as the virion. . The virion consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid. . The capsid with the enclosed nucleic acid is known as the nucleocapsid. . Two kinds of symmetry are encountered in the capsid a) Icosahedral (cubical) b)Helical . Virion may be enveloped or nonenveloped (naked) . Envelope is lipoprotein in nature, lipid is derived from host cell, while protein is virus coded. . Enveloped viruses are susceptible to the action of lipid solvents like ether, chloroform and bile salts.
2
Capsomere
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Microbiology
null
704d2de8-9fb4-4e4a-b000-1e5287538ee8
multi
Tide water mark dermatitis is seen:-
Tide water mark dermatitis is a band shaped papular eruptions on the thighs and abdomen at the diaper edges, characteristically sparing the skin folds Variant of contact dermatitis.
3
Allergic contact dermatitis
Contact dermatitis to rubber used in disposable napkins
Band shaped papular dermatitis
Papulo-erosive ulcer
Dental
JIPMER 2018
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multi
All the following can be used to predict severe acute pancreatitis except NOT RELATED MEDICINE
.
4
Glasgow score > 3
CT severity score > 7
APACHE-II score >8
Serum lipase >5 times the normal
Pharmacology
All India exam
643bbc5d-534e-46a3-bc64-85ffb7ff00d6
multi
All of the following procedures are recommended in dark room processing except:
One of the most important requirements is that the darkroom be lightproof. If it is not, stray light can cause film fogging and loss of contrast. To make the darkroom lightproof, a light-tight door or doorless maze (if space permits) is used. SAFELIGHTING The processing room should have both white illumination and safelighting. Safelighting is low-intensity illumination of relatively long wavelength (red) that does not rapidly affect open film but permits one to see well enough to work in the area. To minimize the fogging effect of prolonged exposure, the safelight should have a frosted 15-watt bulb or a clear 7.5-watt bulb and should be mounted at least 4 feet above the surface where opened films are handled. X-ray  films  are  very  sensitive  to  the  blue-green  region  of  the spectrum and are less sensitive to red wavelengths. The red GBX-2 filter is recommended as a safelight in darkrooms where either intraoral or extraoral films are handled because this filter transmits light only at the red end of the spectrum. Film handling under a safelight should be limited to about 5 minutes because film emulsion shows some sensitivity to light from a safelight with prolonged exposure. The older ML-2 filters (yellow light) are not appropriate for fast intraoral dental film or extraoral panoramic or cephalometric film.  Reference: White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 7th edition page no 70, 71
1
Use of high intensity and short wavelength light (Red)
Light is placed 4 feet above the processing tank
Light is placed behind the processing tank
X-ray of red filter GBX-2 is used
Radiology
null
81da4bf8-9804-4b4a-95bf-e241a8fefed8
multi
In tumor lysis syndrome all of the following are seen except -
Tumor lysis syndrome Caused by destruction of large number of rapidly proliferating neoplastic cells. It frequently leads to ARF It is characterized by Hypocalcemia  Hyperkalemia    Lactic acidosis    Hyperuricemia Hyperphosphatemia                            Most frequently associated with treatment of Burkitt lymphoma                ALL           CLL         Solid tumors
2
Hypernatremia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Pathology
null
a1668df3-ad2a-4591-8d36-d3db9a07eb7f
multi
Renal pa of inferior vana cava develops from?
null
2
Vitelline vein
Subcardinal vein
Supracardinal vein
Common cardinal vein
Anatomy
General anatomy
69154946-1a1f-4593-a3aa-2a8fb92ad21f
single
There is an increased risk of what in pregnant women with thyroid peroxidase antibodies
In women with TPO antibodies, there is high risk for placental abruption.
2
Pre-term delivery
Abruptio placenta
Preterm rupture of membrane
Placenta previa
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
40752e15-b244-47b8-a485-485596104dfb
single
Following is a non-essential amino acid:
null
2
Phenylalanine
Proline
Tryptophan
Threonine
Biochemistry
null
189dadb3-4625-4636-98ac-e725439bcd82
single
About Retinitis pigmentosa all are true EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (C) Early loss of central visionREF: khurana 4th ed p. 260-262Retinitis pigmentosaNight blindness is earliest featureDefective dark adaptationPartial or ring scotomaTubular visionLoss of central vision by age of 50-60 yearsFundus changesRetinal pigmentary changes typically perivascular and resemble bone corpuscles in shapeAttenuated or narrowed retinal arteriolesPale and waxy optic discs
3
Night blindness
Waxy disc
Early loss of central vision
Attenuation of retinal vessels
Ophthalmology
Dystrophies and Degenerations
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True about metastatic calcification is
Ref, Robbins 8/e p38;7/e p41-42,9/e p65
4
Calcium level is normal
Occurs in dead and dying tissue
Occurs in damaged hea valve
Mitochondria involved earliest
Anatomy
General anatomy
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State with highest prevalence of blindness
null
1
Jammu - kashmir
Maharashtra
Bihar
Uttaranchal
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice
Clinical features suspicious of biliary obstruction due to CBD stones include biliary colic, jaundice, clay coloured stools and darkening of urine It is treated by ERCP, laparoscopic or open exploration CBD stones are seen in 6-12% of patients with GB stones Incidence becomes high and surgery is the treatment of choice so it is the most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1494
4
Periampullary carcinoma
Carcinoma gallbladder
Carcinoma head of pancreas
CBD stones
Anatomy
G.I.T
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Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to anti-cancer therapy and is known to stimulate progenitor megakaryocytes
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oprelvekin
2
Filgrastim
Oprelvekin
Erythropoietin
Anagrelide
Medicine
null
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Concurrent flexion of both wrists in response to electrical stimulation is characteristic of which area of the nervous system?
The supplementary motor area tends to produce bilateral motor responses when stimulated. The other areas would tend to produce unilateral responses.
4
Postcentral gyrus
Vestibulospinal tract
Dentate nucleus
Supplementary motor coex
Physiology
All India exam
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According to the treatment plan plaque control, root planning under:
Phase 1 is also known as Etiotropic phase which includes plaque control, diet control, scaling, root planning and temporary restorations.
2
Preliminary phase.
Etiotropic phase.
Surgical phase.
Restorative phase.
Dental
null
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A new born with respiratory distress with RR 86/min, nasal flaring, audible grunting, abdomen lagged behind chest respiratory movement, no lower chest or xiphoid retraction. What is silverman&;s score
Silverman Anderson Score (SAS) are widely used for the categorization of respiratory distress in neonates. It consists of five items: (1) chest retraction as compared with abdominal retraction during inhalation; (2) retraction of the lower intercostal muscles; (3) xiphoid retraction; (4) flaring of the nares with inhalation; and (5) grunting on exhalation. Chest movement- synchronized(0) vs. minimal lag(1) or sinking of the upper chest as the abdomen rises. In the most extreme instances, a seesaw-like movement of the chest and abdomen is observed and would be given a score of 2. Intercostal retractions- retraction between the ribs is rated as none(0), minimal(1)or marked(2). Xiphoid retractions- retraction below the xiphoid process are rated as none(0), minimal(1) or marked(2). Nasal flaring- no nasal flaring: 0. Minimal flaring is scored 1 and marked flaring is scored 2. Expiratory grunting- no grunting: 0, grunting that is audible with a stethoscope is scored 1, and grunting that is audible without using a stethoscope is scored 2. Adequate ventilation is indicated by a 0, severe respiratory distress is indicated by a score of 10. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
1
3
5
6
Pediatrics
New born infants
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Dense zone of calcification at growing metaphysis seen in scurvy is ___:
Ans. C. Frankel's line* Scurvy is due to the deposition of defective collagen in the bone.* Radiological features of scurvy:- Zone of provisional calcification at the growing metaphysis is dense, giving a white line called as Frankel's line,- Sclerotic rim around the epiphysis known as Wimberger's ring sign.- Area of lucency beneath the zone of metaphyseal calcification, which is known as Trummerfeld zone,- Metaphyseal spurs known as Pelkan spurs,- Pencil thin cortex,- Ground glass appearance of bones.
3
Wimberger's ring sign
Pelkan spur
Frankel's line
Trummerfeld zone
Radiology
Skeletal System
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Disecting hematoma is a clinical complication occurring in
Marfan Syndrome Marfan syndrome is a disorder of connective tissues, manifested principally by changes in the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system. Its prevalence is estimated to be 1 in 5000. Approximately 70% to 85% of cases are familial and transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance. The remainder are sporadic and arise from new mutations. Pathogenesis. Marfan syndrome results from an inherited defect in an extracellular glycoprotein called fibrillin- 1. There are two fundamental mechanisms by which loss of fibrillin leads to the clinical manifestations of Marfan syndrome: loss of structural suppo in microfibril rich connective tissue and excessive activation of TGF-b signaling. Each of these is discussed below. * Fibrillin is the major component of microfibrils found in the extracellular matrix. These fibrils provide a scaffolding on which tropoelastin is deposited to form elastic fibers. Although microfibrils are widely distributed in the body, they are paicularly abundant in the aoa, ligaments, and the ciliary zonules that suppo the lens; these tissues are prominently affected in Marfan syndrome. Fibrillin occurs in two homologous forms, fibrillin-1 and fibrillin-2, encoded by two separate genes, FBN1 and FBN2, mapped on chromosomes 15q21.1 and 5q23.31, respectively. Mutations of FBN1 underlie Marfan syndrome; mutations of the related FBN2 gene are less common, and they give rise to congenital contractural arachnodactyly, an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by skeletal abnormalities. Mutational analysis has revealed more than 600 distinct mutations of the FBN1 gene in individuals with Marfan syndrome. Most of these are missense mutations that give rise to abnormal fibrillin-1. These can inhibit polymerization of fibrillin fibers (dominant negative effect). Alternatively, the reduction of fibrillin content below a ceain threshold weakens the connective tissue (haploinsufficiency). * While many clinical manifestations of Marfan syndrome can be explained by changes in the mechanical propeies of the extracellular matrix resulting from abnormalities of fibrillin, several others such as bone overgrowth and myxoid changes in mitral valves cannot be attributed to changes in tissue elasticity. Recent studies indicate that loss of microfibrils gives rise to abnormal and excessive activation of transforming growth factor-b (TGF-b), since normal microfibrils sequester TGF-b and thus control the bioavailability of this cytokine. Excessive TGF-b signaling has deleterious effects on vascular smooth muscle development and it also increases the activity of metalloproteases, causing loss of extracellular matrix. This schema is suppoed by two sets of observations. First, in a small number of individuals with clinical features of Marfan syndrome (MFS2), there are no mutations in FBN1 but instead gain-of-function mutations in genes that encode TGF-b receptors. Second, in mouse models of Marfan syndrome generated by mutations in Fbn1, administration of antibodies to TGF-b prevents alterations in the aoa and mitral valves. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 144
4
Turner's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Down syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Medicine
Genetics
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Colonic pseudo-obstruction occurs in all, except:
Ans. (d) HyperthyroidismCauses of secondary pseudo-obstruction of colon: (Secondary pseudo-obstruction of colon is most common)* Neurological medications* Opiates* Myxedema (Hypothyroidism)* Hyper parathyroidism* Uremia* SLE* Scleroderma* Diabetes mellitus* Retroperitoneal hematoma* Parkinson's disease* Metabolic diseases.
4
Diabetes mellitus
Dermatomyositis
Scleroderma
Hyperthyroidism
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
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The commonest presenting complaint In a gynaecology depament is :
Leucorrhoea
2
Bleeding PV
Leucorrhoea
Prolapse uterus
Mass abdomen
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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The management technique which is more promising tool for application in health field is:-
Cost Effective Analysis - This is a more promising tool for application in health field than cost benefit analysis It is similar to cost benefit analysis except that benefit ,instead of being expressed in Monetary terms is expressed in terms of Results achieved eg - No. of lives saved or No. of days free from disease
1
Cost effective analysis
Cost benefit analysis
Cost accounting
Input output analysis
Social & Preventive Medicine
Definitions and Concepts in HP
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Increased risk of coronary hea disease is seen in?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II hyperlipidemia FRADERICKSON CLASSIFICATION OF HYPERLIPIDEIVRA 1. Type Ilfamilial lipoprein lipase deficiency) o Lipoprotein lipase is required for the hydrolysis of chylomicrons and VLDL tri glycerides. o Deficiency of LPL results in decrease hydrolysis and elevated levels of plasma chylomicrons. o VLDL may also be increased but chylomicrons predominate. o Clinical manifestations Severe abdominal pain due to acute pancreatitis. Lipemia retinalis --> opalescent retinal vessels. Eruptive xanthomas ---> on back, buttocks and extensor surface of legs and arms. Hepatosplenomegaly --> due to uptake of chylomicron by RE cells of liver & spleen. Note - Similar disorder may occur with Apo-C II deficiency, because apo C-II acts as a cofacter for LPL (see previous explanations on lipid transpo). In Apo II deficiency, LPL becomes inactive. 2. Type II A.Tvpe Ha (familial hvpercholesterolemia) o It is due to deficiency of LDL receptors. o There are two sources of increased LDL Decreased clearance of LDL LDL receptors. Increased production LDL from IDL normally 40-60% of IDL is taken up by liver LDL receptors, but in LDL receptor deficiency, clearance of IDL is decreased. So, more IDL is conveed to LDL. o Clinical manifestations Tuberous and tendon xanthoma on hands, wrist, elbows, knees, heels (especially the achilles tendon) or buttocks. Xanthelesma --> Barely elevated deposits of cholesterol over eyelids. Premature atherosclerosis coronary hea diseases. Peripheral vascular disease Corneal arcus B.TypeIlb (familial combined hvperlipidemia) o It is a disorder genetically distinct from the other inherited hyperlipidemias and characterized by the type II or type IV lipoprotein pattern that may change from time to time. o It is due to L LDL receptors and increased secretion of Apo B-100 (major apoprotein of VLDL) -9 So, both LDL and VLDL are increased. o Clinical manifestations There are no xanthomas (as seen with type 11a). Increased risk of CHD. Peripheral vascular disease. 3. Type DI (Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia) o Also known as familial broad - $ disease. o This is due do abnormality in Apo - E. o Apo - E acts as a ligand for LDL receptors and helps in hepatic uptake of chylomiron remnants and VLDL remnants, i.e. IDL (see previous explanations of lipid transpo). o Due to defective uptake, Chylomicron remnants and VLDL remnants (IDL) are increased. o Clinical manifestations Tubero-eruptive xanthomas. Palmar xanthomas (xanthomata striata palmas). Premature atherosclerosis --* CHD Peripheral vascular disease Type IV (familial hyperiglyceridemia) o There is elevated levels of VLDL due to increased hepatic production of VLDL and impaired catabolism of VLDL. o It may be due to Apo - V deficiency (Apo - V promotes LPL mediated triglyceride lipolysis). o Premature coronary aery disease may occur but the chances are very-very less than in type II & Type III hyperlipidemias. Type V (Endogenous hvperiglyceridemia) o Pathogenesis may be similar to type IV, but it is more severe and both VLDL and chylomicrons are raised because both these are metabolized by same LPL and competes with each other for metabolism. o Clinical manifestations These are same as in type I familial LPL deficiency, i.e. o Pancreatitis o Lipemia retinalis o Eruptive xanthomas o Hepatosplenomegaly
2
Type I hyperlipidemia
Type II hyperlipidemia
Type IV hyperlipidemia
Type V hyperlipidemia
Pathology
null
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Which of the following cannot be done by 3 years old child -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Draws a triangle o A child can draw a triangle by 5 years. o A child can draw a circle by 3 years. o A child can make a tower of 9 cubes by 30 months. o A child can go up and downstairs with one step at a time by 2 years. o A child can stand momentarily on one foot by 3 years
1
Draw a triangle
Draw a circle
Can arrange 9 cubes
Can go, up and down
Pediatrics
null
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Which of the following is false about parotid tumor
Benign tumors are most common parotid gland tumors.
4
Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy
Pleomorphic adenoma is most common
Superfical parotidectomy is the treatment
Malignant disease is most common variety
Surgery
null
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Characteristic features of opioid withdrawal is:
Ref: KDT 6/e p447 *Withdrawal symptoms are opposite of the acute effect of drug. For opioids, these include lacrimation, rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, piloerection, diarrhea, nausea, coughing, mydriasis, sweating and twitching of muscles.
1
Rhinorrhea and lacrimation
Seizures
Delirium tremors
Transient visual, tactile or auditory hallucinations
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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Fetal hemoglobin has more affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin because -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Low affinity for 2,3 DPG o Make it very clear in mind that higher affinity' of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen is due to low affinity of HbF for 2,3- DPG (not due to decreased 2, 3-DPG concentration). HbF does not combines to 2, 3-DPG as avidly as adult hemoglobin."Fetal hemoglobin is left - shifted because it has a low affinity' for DPG", --Principles of medical physiology'"It is worth noting that DPG does not combine with fetal hemoglobin. That is perhaps one reason why HbF has greater affin ity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbF) ".-- Understanding of medical physiology"Fetal hemoglobin binds less 2-3 DPG it has consequently a greater affinity for O2" -- Pediatric physiologyo All other textbooks have mentioned the same thing.o So, high affinity of HbF to O2 is due to low affinity of HbF for 2,3 DPG (and not due to decreased 2,3-DPG concentration).Effect of 2-3 diphosphoglvcerete (2.3 PPG)o Another important factor which influences oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is 2,3 DPG in RBC. DPG is an optional by-product of the glycolytic pathway. DPG binds with deoxygenated hemoglobin but not with oxygenated hemoglobin. Therefore raised DPG concentration releases oxygen from oxyhemoglobin by shifting the following reversible reaction to the right: -HbO2 + DPG - Hb - DPG + O2o One molecule of DPG binds with one mole of deoxyhemoglobin.o That is why in the presence of raised DPG concentration, less oxygen can combine with hemoglobin at a given PO2. Hence an increase in DPG concentration shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right. Thus 2,3 DPG causes delivery (unloading) of O2 to the tissues.o Factors which increases 2,3 DPG level and therefore lower the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin (right shift of O2 dissociation curve and increased delivery of oxygen to tissues) are : -# Hypoxia# High altitude# Alkalosis# Exercise# Pregnancy# Anemia# Hormones (thyroid, GH, androgen)# Cyanotic congenital heart disease# Chemical agents (Inosine, Pyruvate, PEP, phosphate, dihydroxyacetone)o Factors which decrease 2,3 DPG levels and therefore increase oxygen a ffinity of hemoglobin (left shift of O2 dissociation curve and decreased delivery' of O2 to the tissues) are : - Stored blood, and fetal hemoglobin (HbF).o Fetal hemoglobin has considerably less afinity for 2,3 - DPG than does adult hemoglobin therefore fetal hemoglobin has greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. In human blood, the affinity of fetal hemoglobin for 2,3-DPG is only about 40% that of adult hemoglobin. This makes fetal hemoglobin behave as if 2,3-DPG levels are low. Therefore, the oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left. Although fetal red cells do contain 2,3 DPG, the poor binding of 2,3-DPG by fetal hemoglobin is an important factor in facilitating transport of oxygen across the placenta from mother to fetus. On the maternal side of the placenta, the reduction of hemoglobin effectively shifts the curve to the right, increasing oxygen release. On the fetal side, 2,3-DPG does not interfere with the affinity' of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen and thus the uptake of oxygen by fetal erythrocytes.
2
Decreased 2,3 DPG concentration
Low affinity for 2,3 DPG
Increase 2,3 DPG concentration
Reduced pH
Physiology
Blood: RBCs, Anemia, and Polycythemia
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Transport of two substances in same direction is called as?
ANSWER: (A) SymportREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd ed page 54- 55, Ganong's physiology 22nd ed chapter 1CotransportWhen the transported molecule and cotransported ion move in the same direction, the process is called Symport; when they move in opposite directions, the process is called Antiport UniporterSynporterAntiporter
1
Symport
Antiport
Exocytosis
Pinocytosis
Physiology
Transport Across Cell Membrane
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