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In rectus sheath which branch of aorta make anastomosis with superior epigastric artery -
|
The superior epigastric artery is a branch of the internal thoracic artery and the inferior epigastric artery is a branch of the external iliac artery. Superior and inferior epigastric arteries anastomose in the rectus sheath.
| 2 |
Subclavian artery
|
External iliac artery
|
Internal iliac artery
|
External carotid A
|
Anatomy
| null |
383edc36-e57a-4960-8aea-ecb6a9277c36
|
single
|
What is the most common immunosuppressant regimen used in renal transplant for maintainence?
|
Answer- A. Cacineurin inhibitors + Purine antagonists + GlucocoicoidsMaintenance immunosuppression for renal transplantation t)?ically consists of 3 types of drugs in combination: a glucocoicosteroid, purine antagonist (azathioprine or mycophenolate mofetil), and calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine or tacrolimus).
| 1 |
Cacineurin inhibitors + Purine antagonists + Glucocoicoids
|
Cyclophosphamide + Purine antagonists + Glucocoicoids
|
Glucocoicoids + Cyclophosphamide
|
Cacineurin inhibitors + Purine antagonists + Basliximab
|
Surgery
| null |
f3c9fe5a-99b0-4269-994f-30a09d8d67f1
|
single
|
Which of the following Local anaesthetic will be suitable for a hypertensive patient suffering from a heart disease?
| null | 4 |
Lignocaine without adrenaline
|
Prilocaine
|
Lignocaine with adrenaline 1:1000
|
Prilocaine and felypressin
|
Surgery
| null |
cff632f2-d9ca-410f-b37e-bc9185253b88
|
single
|
Following are signs of internal malignancy except –
|
Acanthosis nigricans, clubbing and dermatomyositis are paraneoplastic cutaneous signs of internal malignancy.
| 1 |
Tuberous sclerosis
|
Acanthosis nigricans
|
Clubbing
|
Dermatomyositis
|
Dental
| null |
d3f7bc67-4ac2-4f68-8130-8f4baceeddbb
|
multi
|
The following are the complications of haemodialysis except -a) Hypotensionb) Peritonitisc) Hypertensiond) Bleeding tendency
| null | 1 |
bc
|
c
|
ac
|
ad
|
Surgery
| null |
1ef4aab7-afa8-4a66-9608-3eab5581dbe5
|
multi
|
Botulinum toxin type B is used in which disease -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cervical dystonia o Botulinum toxin type A is used for strabismus, cervical dystonia, blepherospasm, and glabellar lines. o Botulinum toxin type B is used for cervical dystonia. o Abobotulinum toxin A : An acetylcholine release inhibitor and a neuromuscular blocking agent for the treatment of cervical dystonia in adults to reduce the severity of abnormal head position and neck pain, and for the temporary improvement in the appearance of moderate to severe glabellar lines.
| 3 |
Glabellar lines
|
Strabismus
|
Cervical dystonia
|
Blepharospasm
|
Pharmacology
| null |
963547be-0d46-4077-b388-567582cfa1e2
|
single
|
Which vessel is most likely to get affected in ulcer perforation involving 1st pa of duodenum?
|
Gastroduodenal aery is most likely to get affected in ulcer perforation of first pa of duodenum as it is closely associated with the posterior wall of the duodenum. Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Regions edited by Richard S. Snell - 2007, Page 298
| 2 |
IVC
|
Gastroduodenal aery
|
Superior mesenteric aery
|
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery
|
Surgery
| null |
ff64ed95-5252-4c10-b1a4-7b7e79adbe9f
|
single
|
Neurological involvement is pronounced in which type of leprosy?
|
(B) Lucio leprosy # Lepromatous type is more infective than the other types. The prognosis is poor.> Lucio Type (a type of Lepromatous) in which nerves involvement is more common> Cell mediated immunity is deficient and the lepromin test is negative in lepromatous leprosy.> On the other hand, there is an exaggerated and broad humoral immune response. Antibodies in high titres are seen against myco- bacterial as well as several other antigens.
| 2 |
Borderline
|
Lucio leprosy
|
Tuberculoid
|
Lepromatous
|
Microbiology
|
Misc.
|
a1e18662-aa35-4c5a-96b7-a7807f14c954
|
single
|
Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by:
|
B i.e. Infrared photography
| 2 |
Luminol spray
|
Infrared photography
|
Ultraviolet light
|
Magnifying lens
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
f7a77cff-3454-4622-9437-091dbc04dccd
|
single
|
Arrange the following stages of family cycle in chronological sequence -
|
Family life cycle Families are not constant; they are ever changing. A normal family-cycle is generally conceived as having six phases Such a model, however, tends to apply only to areas of low moality and requires amendment in high moality situations to reflect the early death of children and even the death of the mother before any of the children are old enough to leave hom.e. Moreover, "leaving home" is essentially an American and European phenomenon that has little relevance in many developing countries in Africa and Asia. A number of variations and exceptions, then, to the typical life- cycle such as the early death of children or one spouse, Divorce, childlessness, etc., need to be taken into account. Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 683
| 4 |
Formation, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution, Contraction, Complete contraction
|
Formation, Extension, Contraction, Complete extension, Coomplete contraction, Dissolution
|
Formation, Contraction, Complete contraction, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution
|
Formation, Extension, Complete extension, Contraction, Complete contraction, Dissolution
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Non communicable diseases
|
1d4a6652-2537-49e8-b6ad-e0d814e82656
|
single
|
Following features are suggestive of:
|
(A) At low power, the abnormal plasma cells of multiple myeloma fill the marrow.
(B) At medium power, the plasma cells of multiple myeloma here are very similar to normal plasma cells, but they may also be poorly differentiated. Usually, the plasma cells are differentiated enough to retain the function of immunoglobulin production. Thus, myelomas can be detected by an immunoglobulin ‘spike’ on protein electrophoresis, or the presence of Bence Jones proteins (light chains) in the urine. Immunoelectrophoresis characterizes the type of monoclonal immunoglobulin being produced.
(C) Here is a smear of bone marrow aspirate from a patient with multiple myeloma. Note that there are numerous plasma cells with eccentric nuclei and a perinuclear halo of clearer cytoplasm.
(D) The rounded ‘punched-out’ lesions of multiple myeloma appear as lucent areas with this skull radiograph.
| 3 |
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
|
Burkitt’s lymphoma
|
Multiple myeloma
|
Leukemia
|
Pathology
| null |
0b6b2c59-1686-4b28-9289-7df1904a6344
|
single
|
Which of the following is given at intervals as a pulsatile therapy?
|
Only pulsatile exposure to GnRH induces FSH/LH secretion while continuous exposure desensatizes pituitary gonadotropes resulting in loss of Gn release GNRH agonists are usually given in pulsatile manner while antagonists are given in continous manner (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 239)
| 1 |
GnRH agonist
|
Insulin
|
FSH
|
Estrogen
|
Pharmacology
|
Endocrinology
|
f6b86582-b8b5-4314-a35f-f2eaea2c060a
|
single
|
Fecal-oral transmission occurs in: March 2013
|
Ans. C i.e. Poliomyelitis Polio IM injections and tonsillectomy should be avoided during polio epidemic because: Risk of paralytic polio increases Cause of death in polio: Respiratory paralysis Pulse polio was introduced in India in: 1995 Pulse polio is given to children below: 5 years A country is said to be polio FREE if there is no case confirmed for last: 5 years In AFP/acute flaccid paralysis, examination for residual paralysis should be done after: 60 day
| 3 |
HBV
|
HCV
|
Poliomyelitis
|
Rabies
|
Medicine
| null |
cc57160c-2cb8-4932-b585-c74cb2e55e66
|
single
|
Which of the following anti diabetic drugs can cause vitamin B12 deficiency
|
Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 1259 Lactic acidosis and Megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency are the major adverse effects of these drugs Lactic acidosis is more likely to occur in the presence of hepatic and renal impairment or alcohol ingestion
| 3 |
Glipizide
|
Acarbose
|
Metformin
|
Pioglitazone
|
Pharmacology
|
Endocrinology
|
875832b8-eff9-4c2a-9109-dec78504ce12
|
single
|
Route of administration of LMWH for prophylaxis of thrombosis in a patient who had undergone surgery few hours back is:
|
Ans. (A) i.e. Subcutaneous(Ref: Goodman Gilman 13thed; pg. 589)LMWH and fondaparinux can be used by subcutaneous route once a day for both treatment and prophylaxis of thrombosis.Unfractionated heparin can be used by subcutaneous route twice a day for prophylaxis and by intravenous route four times a day for treatment of thrombosis.
| 1 |
Subcutaneous
|
Intravenous
|
Inhalational
|
Intramuscular
|
Pharmacology
|
Hematology
|
41832512-cfad-4649-86f3-c325945f834f
|
single
|
TNF-alpha inhibitor is
|
(A) Infliximab [Harrison18-2491; G&G12-1018; Il,h-I419;# ANTI-TNF-ALPHA INHIBITORS:> Adalimumab, etanercept, and infliximab are antibodies that bind TNF alfa a proinflammatory cytokine.> Blocking TNF alfa from binding to TNF receptors on inflammatory cell surfaces results in suppression of downstream inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 and adhesion molecules involved in leukocyte activation and migration.> An increased risk of lymphoma is common to each of these agents.> Infliximab is a human-mouse chimeric lgG1 monoclonal antibody possessing human constant (Fc) regions and murine var able regions.> Infliximab is currently approved for use in Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and psoriatic arthritis.> Efalizumab is a recombinant humanized anti-CD11 a monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of adult patients with severe psoriasis.> Binding of Efalizumab to CD11a (the alpha subunit of LFA-1) inhibits the interaction of LFA-1 on all lymphocytes with intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), thereby inhibiting the adhesion, activation, and migration of lymphocytes into skin.> Efalizumab is administered by subcutaneous injection.Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against TNF. It is used to treat autoimmune diseases.> Decorin & Mannose-6-phosphates are TGF-beta inhibitors.
| 1 |
Infliximab
|
Efalizumab
|
Mannose-6-phosphate
|
Decorin
|
Pharmacology
|
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
|
ea3e388d-8398-4477-aabb-132e131bb48b
|
single
|
The following Thiazide diuretic is active if the GFR is 30-40 mm Hg
|
Although most thiazide diuretics lose their effectiveness in renal failure, metolazone remains active even when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is below 30-40 mL/min (moderate renal failure). This gives it a considerable advantage over other thiazide diuretics, since renal and hea failure often coexist and contribute to fluid retention(Refer: K. D. Tripathi&;s Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, pg no: 583)
| 1 |
Metolazone
|
Benzthiazide
|
Chlorothiazide
|
Chlohalidone
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
fc4a09f6-d154-4879-93de-769d037b1f10
|
single
|
Which of the following is the most common presentation of hemophilia A?
|
The most common presentation is with pain in a weight-bearing joint such as the hip, knee, or ankle. Hematuria is also common. Bleeding can occur at almost any site without prior trauma.
| 3 |
hematuria
|
melena
|
hemarthrosis
|
pressure neuropathy
|
Medicine
|
Kidney
|
9d3fdc02-35a8-4e9a-898b-7f368c9bf067
|
single
|
Management of essential hypertension is?
|
ANSWER: (C) Diet modification and drugsREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 241"The mainstay of treatment of essential hypertension is lifestyle, diet modification and drugs"
| 3 |
No need to treat
|
Diet modification alone
|
Diet modification and drugs
|
Invasive surgery
|
Medicine
|
Hypertension
|
0354c988-e79f-4f07-b8aa-fa04873d51ce
|
single
|
A 37 year old female was diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Her husband wanted to know about the poor prognostic factors. Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor?
|
Good Prognostic factors
Bad prognostic factors
Acute onset
Insidious onset
Late age group
Early age group
Female
Male
Type I
Type II
Precipitating factors present
Precipitating factors absent
Family history of Mania
Family history of Schizophrenia.
| 3 |
Married
|
Female gender
|
Absence of precipitating factors
|
Family h/o mood disorders
|
Psychiatry
| null |
c198ded6-5695-4904-99d9-71c89baefdff
|
single
|
Inferior mesenteric vein drains into
|
Inferior mesenteric vein usually terminates when reaching the splenic vein, which goes on to form the poal vein with the superior mesenteric vein (SMV).
| 1 |
Splenic vein
|
Renal vein
|
Inferior vena cava
|
Superior mesenteric vein
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
302661f7-23d1-4e55-a035-fd22d7517a46
|
single
|
A 27-year-old man is seen with a history of chronic sinus and pulmonary infections. He works as a salesperson in a retail outlet and denies any specific occupational exposure. He lives with his wife of 4 years and has no children. Family and travel history is noncontributory. On examination, he is in no acute distress. Lung exam reveals crackles in both lower lung zones and extremities show no clubbing. CXR is shown below.The most likely diagnosis is
|
This x-ray shows a bilateral lower zone hazy density with small cystic-appearing shadows. There is dextrocardia with situs inversus totalis, i.e., a right aoic arch, the stomach bubble on the right side, and the left diaphragm higher than the right. The chest x-ray shows dextrocardia and bilateral bronchiectasis as seen in immotile cilia syndrome. Kaagener syndrome is the immotile cilia syndrome with situs inversus totalis.This is an autosomal recessive disease characterized by structural and functional abnormalities of the cilia resulting in impaired mucus clearance, recurrent infection, chronic sinobronchial infections, and infeility. Frontal sinuses are often absent or hypoplastic. Chronic mucus impaction and infections lead to bronchiectasis.
| 2 |
IgA deficiency
|
Kaagener syndrome
|
Aspiration pneumonia
|
Cystic fibrosis
|
Radiology
|
Respiratory system
|
f31cbb07-6078-4f7b-b40c-2582bb215a40
|
multi
|
In which of the following delusion of infidelity is seen?
|
Ans. B. Othello syndromePathological jealousy, also known as Morbid jealousy, Othello syndrome or delusional jealousy, is a psychological disorder in which a person is preoccupied with the thought that their spouse or sexual partner is being unfaithful without having any real proof, along with socially unacceptable or abnormal behavior related to these thoughts. The most common cited forms of psychopathology in morbid jealousy are delusions. It is considered a subtype of delusional disorder
| 2 |
De Clerambault' S syndrome
|
Othello syndrome
|
Couvade syndrome
|
Ekbom's syndrome
|
Psychiatry
|
Miscellaneous
|
19c100c3-1648-4e54-8fcf-a0bce53d56de
|
single
|
T-4d in TNM staging of breast cancer is
|
OT4a: Extension to the chest wall, not including pectoralis muscleOT4b: Edema (including peau d'orange) or ulceration of the skin, or satellite skin nodules confined to the same breastOT4c: Both T4a and T4bT4d: Inflammatory carcinoma
| 3 |
Involvement of skin
|
Involvement of chest wall
|
Inflammatory carcinoma
|
Peau'de orange appearance
|
Surgery
|
Endocrinology and breast
|
a88bb1eb-9dd7-45b6-afd6-c38277233fa8
|
multi
|
Long term effect of for CNS tumor in children are all except
|
D i.e. Neuropsychological effects are independent of radiation dose
| 4 |
Reduced IQ and learning
|
Endocrine dysfunction
|
Musculoskeletal problems
|
Neuropsychological effects are independent of radiation dose
|
Radiology
| null |
dba51945-4bbd-4dff-9ddc-d97bfe61613f
|
multi
|
A 56-year-old woman presents to the hospital because of symptoms of dyspnea, blurry vision, and headaches. The symptoms started that morning and are getting worse. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. She stopped taking her anti-hypertensive medications 3 months ago because of side effects.On examination, her blood pressure is 210/130 mm Hg, heart rate 100 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 95%. Her fundi reveal retinal hemorrhages and papilledema. The heart sounds are normal expect for an S4, and the lungs have lower lobe crackles. Which of the following is the most appropriate agent to reduce her blood pressure?
|
Nitroprusside is very effective in lowering blood pressure and is easy to titrate and adjust to response. Labetalol is also useful since is can be administered in an oral preparation, but has more contraindications. It is particularly useful in the setting of angina or myocardial infarction. Regardless of which drug is selected, early administration of medications for long-term control is mandatory.
| 4 |
IV hydralazine
|
IV labetalol
|
oral methyldopa
|
IV nitroprusside
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S.
|
a6041966-7695-426e-bd28-340545d93f0a
|
single
|
The cell wall deficient bacteria
| null | 2 |
Rickettsiae
|
Mycoplasma
|
Chlamydiae
|
Ehrlichiae
|
Microbiology
| null |
7ebce91c-e1ab-4da3-b535-423e039c0f54
|
multi
|
A 24 year old lady with a past history of psoriasis presents with fever and multiple pus filled lesions in a generalized distribution. What is the drug of choice?
|
The patient described in this question is suffering from generalized pustular psoriasis, also known as impetigo herpetiformis, if it occurs in pregnancy. Treatment of choice in generalized pustular psoriasis is Methotrexate except in pregnancy where it is systemic steroids. Ref: Obstetric Dermatology: A Practical Guide By Arieh Ingber, Mark Lebwohl, Page 139; Primary Care for Women By Phyllis Carolyn Leppe, Jeffrey F. Peipe, Page 849; Rooks Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Pages 20, 53.
| 3 |
Coicosteroids
|
Retinoids
|
Methotrexate
|
Psoralen with PUVA
|
Skin
| null |
37802559-d367-4fa6-ab20-74faa6f2997c
|
single
|
Which of the following is / are characteristics of the Sjogren's syndrome?
|
Sjögren syndrome is a chronic, systemic autoimmune disorder that principally involves the salivary and lacrimal glands, resulting in xerostomia (dry mouth) and xerophthalmia (dry eyes). The effects on the eye often are called keratoconjunctivitis sicca (sicca means “dry”), and the clinical presentation of both xerostomia and xerophthalmia is also sometimes called the sicca syndrome. Traditionally, two forms of the disease are recognized:
Primary Sjögren syndrome (sicca syndrome alone; no other autoimmune disorder is present)
Secondary Sjögren syndrome (the patient manifests sicca syndrome in addition to another associated autoimmune disease)
Secondary Sjögren syndrome can be associated with almost any other autoimmune disease, but the most common associated disorder is rheumatoid arthritis. About 15% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis have Sjögren syndrome. In addition, secondary Sjögren syndrome may develop in 30% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Reference: ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL PATHOLOGY, Neville, FOURTH EDITION page no 434
| 4 |
Dry eyes
|
Dry mouth
|
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
All of the above
|
Pathology
| null |
a0a433ad-ae4d-4e7b-b584-1b95d7c2a191
|
multi
|
Donepezil has the following mechanism of action
|
Donepezil: cerebro selective and reversible anti-AchE produces improvement in several cognitive as well as non cognitive (activities of daily living) scores in Alzheimer's Dementia. The benefit is ascribed to elevation of Ach level in the coex, especially in the surviving neurons that project from basal forebrain to cerebral coex and hippocampus. Therapeutic doses produce only weak peripheral AchE inhibition: cholinergic side effects are mild. Because of long t 1/2 (~70 hr), donepezil is administered once daily at bedtime It is generally well tolerated and is not hepatotoxic.
| 2 |
Dopaminergic blockade
|
Cholinesterase inhibition
|
Serotonin blockade
|
Histaminergic action
|
Pharmacology
|
Parasympathetic System & Glaucoma
|
d7c29e86-157c-4675-8707-ec2e76c551aa
|
single
|
The lab repos of a patient given below pH = 7.2 HCO3 = 10 mEq/L PCO2 = 30 mmHg This exemplifies which of the following disorder
|
Parameters normal values Blood Ph 7.35-7.45 HCO3 22-26 meq/L(avg=24meq) PCO2 35-45mmhg CHLORIDE 96-106 meq/l PO2 60-100 mmhg In given scenerio ph=7.2 indicating acidosis . Bicarbonate is significantly reduced that is 10 mmhg indicating metabolic acidosis. Decreased HCO3- Increased excretion of NH4Cl occurs with renal compensation for the acidosis Respiratory compensation for the acidosis increases the ventilation rate, resulting in Decreased plasma Pco2.
| 3 |
Respiratory acidosis
|
Respiratory alkalosis
|
Metabolic acidosis
|
Metabolic alkalosis
|
Physiology
|
NEET Jan 2020
|
71a01ce7-415c-4d33-b8b8-2b08b1f78538
|
single
|
A 30 years old male from a rural background presents to the ophthalmology clinic with history of difficulty in vision for 10 days. He gives history of vegetative material falling into the left eye about 15 days back. On examination an ulcerative lesion in the cornea with feathery margins and creamy exudates is seen. Few satellite lesions were also noted. The most likely diagnosis etiologic agent is:
|
B i.e. Fusarium sp.
| 2 |
Corynebacterium diphtheria
|
Fusarium sp.
|
Acanthomoeba sp.
|
Streptococcus pneumonia
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
ea5e774f-11e8-48f1-8a07-57126dd91056
|
multi
|
Muscle relaxant of choice in liver disease is ?
| null | 1 |
Atracurium
|
Pipecuronium
|
Rocuronium
|
Vecuronium
|
Pharmacology
| null |
31f9107b-4b51-4102-87d6-fe7c979a990c
|
single
|
Bacteria reproduce mainly by
| null | 2 |
budding
|
binary fission
|
sporing
|
bacterial components produced by host cells
|
Microbiology
| null |
2b60141b-3d18-4a39-aae3-48312f1fde0a
|
single
|
Despite their sho half-lives (2 hrs), proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) cause a prolonged Suppression of acid secretion (up to 48 h) because:
|
The only significant pharmacological action of proton pump inhibitor is dose dependent suppression of gastric acid secretion; without anticholinergic or Hz blocking action. It is a powerful inhibitor of gastric acid: can totally abolish HCl secretion, both resting as well as that stimulated by food or any of the secretagogues, without much effect on pepsin, intrinsic factor, juice volume and gastric motility. Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole is inactive at neutral pH, but at pH < 5 rearranges to two charged cationic forms (a sulphenic acid and a sulphenamide configurations) that react covalently with SH groups of the H*K*ATPase enzyme and inactivate it irreversibly, especially when two molecules of omeprazole react with one molecule of the enzyme. After diffusing into the parietal cell from blood, it gets concentrated in the acidic pH of the canaliculi because the charged forms generated there are unable to diffuse back. Moreover, it gets tightly bound to the enzyme (Essentials of pharmavology KD Tripathy,6th edition,pg no.631)
| 3 |
They are prodrugs and undergo activation gradually
|
They exit from the plasma and enter acid secretory canaliculi and stay there, blocking the secretion of acid for a long time
|
They irreversibly inhibit the proton pump molecule and hence, acid secretion requires synthesis of new proton pumps
|
They irreversibly inhibit the proton pump molecule and hence, acid secretion requires synthesis of new proton pumps
|
Pharmacology
|
Gastrointestinal tract
|
28cb36ae-5103-4069-a26d-9ed00f849d23
|
multi
|
F 30 in ICD 10 denotes
|
ICD CHAPTERS ICD is a text book for classification of psychiatric disorders. The below table comprises chapter numbers dealing with various psychiatric disorders. Ref. International classification of mental disorders, 10 th edition
| 1 |
mood disorders
|
anxiety disorders
|
substance use disorders
|
psychotic disorders
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
48cc816d-81c7-4697-bfd5-e8c4afef56ff
|
single
|
Which type of intubation is preferred in case of bilateral mandibular fractures?
|
Ans. (a) Orotracheal intubationRef. Robert kellman, Cranio Maxial Trauma * Regardless of associated injuries the primary means of securing airway in bilateral mandibular fracture is orotracheal intubation.* If there is any difficulty in orotracheal intubation - fibre optic Naso tracheal intubation is used.
| 1 |
Orotracheal intubation
|
Naso tracheal intubation
|
Cricothyrotomy
|
Submental intubation
|
Surgery
|
Trauma
|
93733195-c785-4453-a685-7b2eccd85121
|
single
|
Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon is seen in -
|
pseudo koebner's phenomenon:-Occurrence of new anisomorphic lesions in a linear fashion due to autoinoculation of virus along the lines of taruma. Seen in was, molluscum contagiosum koebner's phenomenon:Occurrence of new isomorphic lesions over the site of trauma.Seen in psoriasis,Lichen planus ,Vitiligo. IADVL textbook of dermatology page 107
| 4 |
Psoriasis
|
Lichen planus
|
Vitiligo
|
Plane Was
|
Dental
|
Papulosquamous disorders
|
7538749b-fcd6-4223-bfe5-0d5ac9116943
|
single
|
Adson&;s test is positive in -
|
Adson&;s test is a provocative test for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome accompanied by compression of the Subclan aery by a cervical rib or tightened anterior and middle scalene muscles. Ref : Bailey and love surgery text book 27th Ed.
| 1 |
Cervical rib
|
Cervical spondylosis
|
Cervical fracture
|
Cervical dislocation
|
Surgery
|
All India exam
|
ef0a5833-ae4d-4002-8364-b3259fad703c
|
single
|
Kamla, a 48-years-old lady underwent a hysterectomy. On the seventh day, she developed fever, burning micturition and continuous urinary dribbling. She can also pass urine voluntarily. The diagnosis is:
|
Continuous dribbling of urine following hysterectomy points towards urinary fistulas as the diagnosis.
In case of urinary fistulas, if the patient never needs to void as there is continuous dribbling it signifies that the fistula communicates with the bladder. If, there is filling and emptying of bladder along with the fistula, it suggests fistula opening into one ureter i.e. Ureterovaginal fistula.
As far as urethral fistula are concerned, they give little trouble because the urethra is normally empty of urine. However, during micturition urine passes through the fistula and may then fill the vagina to dribble during body movements for a short time afterwards.
This patient is developing symptoms on the seventh day can be explained by: "Fistulas resulting from accidental, surgical and obstetrical trauma are produced in two ways. They can be caused by a direct injury such as cuts and then they manifest themselves immediately by hematuria and incontinence. Alternatively, if they are the outcome of pressure necrosis or of ischemia, in such a case urinary incontinence, fever and burning micturition develop 7-14 days after the accident."
Before concluding let's rule out other options as well:
In stress incontinence, dribbling of urine occurs only when intraabdominal pressure is raised.
In urge incontinence, the patient has the urge to void urine at a moment's notice and she is unable to control her bladder and passes urine instantly.
| 4 |
Vesico vaginal fistula
|
Urge incontinence
|
Stress incontinence
|
Uretero-vaginal fistula
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
6d955b8f-73f9-4289-960e-fb310139e9be
|
single
|
Unilateral ovarian tumor has spread to peritoneum but not to uterus. What is the FIGO staging of ovarian neoplasm in this case?
|
In this case the tumor has spread to peritoneum not uterus which is usually seen in stage IC of ovarian neoplasm. In stage IC: tumor is either stage IA or IB, but with tumor on the surface of one or both ovaries, or with ruptured capsule, or with ascites containing malignant cells or with positive peritoneal washings. In stage IB: growth is limited to both ovaries, there is no ascites with malignant cells. The capsule is intact and there is no tumor on the external surface. In stage IIA: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with extension to the uterus and/or tubes. In stage IIB: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with extension to other pelvic tiisues. Ref: Williams Gynecology, 2e chapter 35
| 2 |
Stage IB
|
Stage IC
|
Stage IIA
|
Stage IIB
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
13c0ca66-30bb-4249-a55d-6b1456c2f290
|
single
|
In which case homologus aificial insemination is used in females :
|
Cervical factor
| 3 |
Hormonal disturbances
|
Tubal block
|
Cervical factor
|
All of the above
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
765db9b6-7fd7-438e-aaad-c9bc1014c08f
|
multi
|
Relapse is seen in which malaria?1. P. vivax2. P. falciparum3. P. malariae4. P. ovale
|
ANS. D P. falciparumP. vivaxP. ovaleP malariaeTissue schizogony5-6 days8 days9 days13 daysErythrocytic phase48 hours48 hours (benign tertain)49-50 hours (ovale tertian)72 hours (quartan)Red cells affectedAllReticulocytesReticulocytesMature RBCsHypnozoitesNoYesYesNo, but blood forms can persist up to 30 yearsIncubation period in humans12 days13-17 days13-17 days28-30 daysPigmentationMaurer'sSchuffner'sJames'Ziemann's
| 4 |
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
3 and 4
|
1 and 4
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology
|
7652a5d3-2e67-47f1-b02d-ef1240d73dd7
|
single
|
Rate of newly formed Osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by?
|
Ans. C. Tetracycline labelingTetracycline labeling of bonea. Tetracycline labeling is used to determine the amount of bone growth within a certain period of time (approx. 21-day period).b. Osteoid is new bone that has been laid down by the osteoblasts and is non-mineralized.c. Usually tetracycline is given for several days in a row at 2 time points with a 10-day gap in between the dosing periods.d. It is recommended that the biopsy not be taken until at least 3-5 days after the last label.e. The label is incorporated into the mineralized bone and fluoresce under UV light microscopy.f. The bone must be processed mineralized in order to view the labels. Decalcification of the bone removes the labels.g. The quantitative interpretation of the bone histology, quantification of the various features, and bone dynamics with this method increases its sensitivity and aid in comparison of biopsy sample.h. If interested more in the measuring of osteoid, then staining the sections with Sanderson's Rapid Bone Stain (RBS) or McNeal's Tetrachrome is recommended. The RBS clearly differentiates the mineralized from the non-mineralized tissues in bone that has been processed in plastics.
| 3 |
Immunofluorescence
|
Von Kossa stain for calcium
|
Tetracycline labeling
|
Alizarin red stain
|
Orthopaedics
|
Bone
|
01e845c6-51e9-418a-8023-9d156c95f5bd
|
single
|
Hertwig's root sheath is formed from
| null | 4 |
Stratum inter medium
|
Stellate reticulum
|
Outer enamel epithelium
|
Cervical loop/ Enamel Organ
|
Dental
| null |
c0775d08-a3ba-467f-927b-e95687bb34ce
|
single
|
Brodie&;s abscess is the terminology for
|
It is a long standing localized pyogenic abscess in the bone(long standing because of strong defence mechanism of the body.) It usually involves long bones. Brodie&;s abscess - A circumscribed, round/oval cavity containing pus and pieces of dead bone (sequestra) surrounded sclerosis - Most commonly seen in tibial / femoral metaphysis *may occur in epiphysis / cuboidal bone (eg: calcaneum) - Metaphyseal lesion cause no / little periosteal reaction - Diaphyseal lesion may be associated with periosteal new bone formation and marked coical thickening . ref : maheswari9th ed
| 2 |
Subungual infection
|
chronic osteomyelitis
|
web space infection
|
infected hematoma
|
Anatomy
|
Skeletal infections
|
be63713b-634e-4f36-8534-f2c5e3c171bf
|
single
|
Numerator in maternal mortality ratio -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Female death during pregnancy & puerperium * Maternal mortality ratio is defined as total number of maternal deaths i.e. deaths due to complications of child birth, pregnancy or within 42 days of delivery from 'puerperal causes' in the area during a given year Per 1000 or (100,000) live births in the same area during the same year.MMR =Total no. of female death due to complications of pregnancy, childbirth or with 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year----------------------------------------------------------------Total no. of live birth in the same area & yearx 1000 (or 100,000)
| 3 |
Female deaths in a given year
|
Female death during pregnancy
|
Female death during pregnancy 8c puerperium
|
Female death in puerperium
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics
|
2c72b274-5bde-42a3-b42b-8500f46ade50
|
single
|
Dinoprost is -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., PG F2 alpha o Dinoprost - PG F2 alpha, intraamniotically for midterm aboion. o Dinoprostone - PG E2, intravaginally for midterm aboion.
| 3 |
PG El
|
PGE2
|
PGF2 alpha
|
PGI2
|
Pharmacology
| null |
355ae6b2-d7d2-40cf-a23b-b9cb847553c4
|
single
|
Which of the following nerve innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle?
|
The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve which give rise to the mylohyoid nerve innervates the mylohyoid muscle. Ref: Mastery of surgery, Volume 1 edited by Josef E. Fischer, K. I. Bland, Mark P. Callery
| 2 |
Facial nerve
|
Trigeminal nerve
|
Vagus nerve
|
Abducens nerve
|
Anatomy
| null |
cba320ee-4957-4069-a583-ad70d42775f7
|
single
|
A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.90) between systolic P and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong inte retation of the correlation coefficient observed-
|
Correlation coefficients:
– Pearson’s Correlation coefficient:
– Spearman’s Rank Correlation coefficient
Coefficient of determination:
– Is the percentage of variation in a variable that is explained by one or more of the others
– Is generally obtained in a regression setup
– Coefficient of determination = (Correlation coefficient)2 = r2
In the given question, a cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.90, p= 0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic, Since r = + 0.90 (p = 0.01; implies significant relationship), it means there is a strong positive correlation between systolic blood pressure (SBP) and serum cholesterol (SC); therefore as SBP increases, SC will also increase and vice-versa. Thus, a patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol AND a patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
Since r = + 0.9; Coefficient of determination = r2 = (0.9)2 = 0.81
Interpretation of r2: 0.81 or 81% of variation in systolic blood pressure among patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice-versa.
| 1 |
Since there is a high correlation, the magnitude of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other
|
A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
|
A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol
|
About 80% of the variation in systolic BP among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
b15fb940-5fdf-41f3-8eb9-d743aa5aa421
|
multi
|
Pre maxillary part of maxilla develops from:
|
The primary palate (also called premaxilla) develops from the frontonasal process. The secondary palate develops from the palatine process of the maxillary processes.
| 3 |
Fusion of lateral nasal process
|
Fusion of median nasal process
|
Frontonasal process
|
Maxillary and mandibular process
|
Anatomy
| null |
981fb32a-a18e-4e1f-bdbf-27dcb823bbff
|
single
|
Adrenocoical suppression causing drugs are all except ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Spironolactone Drugs causing adrenocoical suppression are: Steroids (prednisone, hydrocoisone, and dexamethasone) Aminoglutethimide Fludrocoisone Ketoconazole Megestrol Metyrapone Mitotane
| 4 |
Prednisone
|
Ketoconazole
|
Mitotane
|
Spironolactone
|
Pharmacology
| null |
11e3bc45-8d1d-41b3-b4c9-b4edfb12ac7b
|
multi
|
Which of the following are the first incisors to erupt in an infant __________
|
Eruption times vary from child to child. As seen from the cha, the first teeth begin to break through the gums at about 6 months of age. Usually, the first two teeth to erupt are the two bottom central incisors (the two bottom front teeth). Next, the top four front teeth emerge. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
| 1 |
Lower central
|
Lower lateral
|
Upper central
|
Upper lateral
|
Pediatrics
|
Growth and development
|
26de8a10-bb8c-486a-81c0-df0b87704883
|
single
|
Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ig immunoglobulin Intravenous immunoglobulin is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease Q.The mechanism of action of IVIg, in Kawasaki disease is unknown but treatment results in rapid deference and resolution of clinical signs of illness in most patients.Treatment of Kawasaki diseaseAcute stageIntravenous immunoglobulin with aspirin.Convalescent stageAspirin 3-5 mg/kg once daily orally until 6-8 week illness onset.Long-term therapy for those with coronary abnormalitiesAspirin 3-5 mg/kg once daily orally+- dipyridamole 4-6 mg/kg/24 hr, divided in two-three doses orally.Acute coronary thrombosisPrompt fibrinolytic therapy with tissue plasminogen activator, streptokinase or urokinase under supervision of cardiologistIVIG reduces the prevalence of coronary disease from 20-25% in children treated with aspirin alone to 2- 4% in the children treated with IVIG and aspirin within the first 10 days of illness.Also KnowUse of corticosteroid in Kawasaki diseaseUsed in patient who have persistent fever despite 2 doses of IVIG.KAWASAKI DISEASEKawasaki disease is generally divided into three clinical phase's acute febrile phase?Characterized by high spiking fever, remittent and unresponsive to antibioticsFever lasts for 1-2 weeks.Subacute phase? This phase is associated with desquamation Q, thrombocytosis, development of coronary aneurysms and the highest risk of sudden death.Convalescent phase Q:This phase begins when all clinical signs of illness have disappeared and continues until the ESR returns to normal, approximately 6-8 weeks after illness.
| 1 |
Ig immunoglobulin
|
Steroid
|
Azathioprine
|
Not recalled
|
Medicine
|
Vasculitis
|
f46a0aec-4b09-4413-b995-0557fd1972d8
|
multi
|
Which of the following is not true about newborn assessment -
|
Ans is 'a' i.e., APGAR at 7 min indicates neonatal moality depression Later times APGAR score (after 5 minutes) indicates about long term neurological damage (not neonatal moality) Interpretation ofAPGAR Score The test is generally done at one and five minutes after bih, and may be repeated later if the score is and remains low. Scores 3 and below are generally regarded as critically low, 4 to 6 fairly low, and 7 to I 0 generally normal. o A low score on the one-minute test may show that the neonate requires medical attention (e.g. resuscitation) but is not necessarily an indication that there will be long-term problems, paicularly if there is an improvement by the stage of the five-minute test. If the Apgar score remains below 3 at later times such as 10, 15 or 30 mintues, there is a risk that the child will suffer longer-term neurological damage. There is also a small but significant increase of the risk of cerebral palsy. However, the purpose of the Apgar test is to determine quickly whether a newborn needs immediate medical care; it was not designed to make long-term predicitions on a child's health. CO2 transpo across placenta o CO2 is cleared by placenta by simple diffusion. CO2 is produced abundantly in the fetus, and the PCO2 of fetal blood is higher than maternal blood. CO2 therefore diffuses from fetal blood, through the placenta, into the maternal circulation, and is disposed by expiration from mother's lung. Anaerobic metabolism causes acidemia due to lactate (lactic acid) production o Anoxic perfusion causes an increase in glucose consumption which is more than two fold higher than that seen in the oxygenated perfusion, resulting finally in placental uptake of glucose not only from the maternal but also from the fetal circulation. o Lactate production is increased during the anoxic perfusion, while the final tissue energy value lies between the values observed for fresh tissue and for the oxygenated perfusion. The shift to anerobic metabolism shown by placental tissue in anoxic conditions enables continued functioning of the tissue over the 2-h perfusion period but it appear that under anoxic conditions the tissue may incur an energy debt not observed in oxygenated perfusions.
| 1 |
APGAR at 7 min indicates neonatal moality depression
|
APGAR at 1 min, indicators for neonatal resuscitation
|
Fetus can rapidly washout CO2 through placenta
|
Anaerobic metabolism causes acidemia
|
Pediatrics
| null |
c446dfd9-6889-479c-81fb-e9167df8f66b
|
multi
|
A 23year old male had unprotected sexual intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans that exuded clear serum on pressure. Inguinal lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged and not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic test is -
| null | 2 |
Gram's stain of ulcer discharge
|
Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge
|
Giemsa stain of lymph node aspirate
|
ELISA for HIV infection
|
Microbiology
| null |
3b5191cd-0c4d-461a-9c22-d4ad5d2930ed
|
multi
|
Medulla oblongata is supplied by the following aeries, except
|
Blood to the medulla is supplied by a number of aeries:Anterior spinal aery: This supplies the whole medial pa of the medulla oblongata.Posterior Spinal aeryPosterior inferior cerebellar aery: This is a major branch of the veebral aery, and supplies the posterolateral pa of the medulla, where the main sensory tracts run and synapse. It also supplies pa of the cerebellum.Direct branches of the veebral aery: The veebral aery supplies an area between the other two main aeries, including the solitary nucleus and other sensory nuclei and fibers.Basilar aery(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy, second edition pg-77)
| 2 |
Anterior spinal aery
|
Bulbar aery
|
Basilar aery
|
Posterior inferior cerebellar aery
|
Anatomy
|
Brain
|
6772badc-12dd-452c-94ae-f061cf77232c
|
multi
|
A 2 year old boy presents with pain in his groin that has been increasing in nature over the past few weeks. He is found to have a degenerative malformation of the transversalis fascia during development. Which of the following structures on the anterior abdominal wall is likely defective
|
Deep inguinal rinng lies in the transversalis fascia, just lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Superficial inguinal ring is the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle Inguinal ligament and the anterior wall of the inguinal canal are formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. The sac of a direct inguinal hernia is formed by the peritoneum. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 1080
| 2 |
Superficial inguinal ring
|
Deep inguinal ring
|
Sac of a direct inguinal hernia
|
Inguinal ligament
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
b2ede68c-00da-4a08-bdd0-41879c5c044c
|
multi
|
Most common organism causing laryngotracheobronchitis is
|
Para-influenza virus I and II is the most common organism causing laryngotracheobronchitis. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 328
| 2 |
RSV
|
Para-influenza virus
|
Influenza virus
|
H. Influenza
|
ENT
|
Larynx
|
6448577a-661f-4085-acfe-ccef03c820fc
|
single
|
Which of the following is specifically used for grading of SAH?
|
*The initial clinical manifestation of SAH can be graded using the Hunt-hess scale or world federation of neurosurgical societies classification schemes . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567
| 3 |
Glasgow coma scale
|
Glasgow scale
|
Hunt and Hess scale
|
none
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
50ee5e39-988d-4c49-9285-eca3ddeaddb7
|
multi
|
Best contraceptive for newly married couples
|
HORMONAL CONTRACEPTIVES Hormonal contraceptives when properly used are the most effective spacing methods of contraception. Oral contraceptives of the combined type are almost 100 per cent effective in preventing pregnancy. They provide the best means of ensuring spacing between one childbih and another. More than 65 million in the world are estimated to be taking the "pill" of which about 9.52 million are estimated to be in India. Beneficial effects The single most significant benefit of the pill is its almost 100 per cent effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and thereby removing anxiety about the risk of unplanned pregnancy. Apa from this, the pill has a number of non- contraceptive health benefits. Both the Royal College of General Practitioners' and the Oxford Family Planning Association's long-term prospective studies of pill use in Britain have shown that using the pill may give protection against at least 6 diseases: benign breast disorders including fibrocystic disease and fibroadenoma, ovarian cysts, iron- deficiency anaemia, pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy and ovarian cancer. Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 536-537
| 3 |
Barrier method
|
IUCD
|
Oral contraceptive pill
|
Natural methods
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography and family planning
|
cff18034-99ea-46f9-a0ba-af625df6e9cf
|
single
|
Which one of the following drugs does not have active metabolite?
|
Lisinopril is a lysine derivative of enalaprilat which is an active metabolite of enalapril. It is an oral prodrug that is conveed by hydrolysis to a conveing enzyme inhibitor, enalaprilat. Enalaprilat itself is available only for intravenous use, primarily for hypeensive emergencies. All other ACE inhibitors are prodrugs and are conveed to active metabolites by hydrolysis, primarily in the liver. Lisinopril doesn't require hydrolysis to become active metabolite. Its oral absorption is low and incomplete. Its half-life is about 12 hours. the active metabolite of diazepam-oxazepam Allopurinol is conveed to oxypurinol by xanthine oxidase propranolol undergoes hydrolysis to form active metabolite Pg no- 273 Basics and clinical Pharmacology G. Katzung 13th edition
| 4 |
Diazepam
|
Propanolol
|
Allopurinol
|
Lisinopril
|
Pharmacology
|
General pharmacology
|
51416ad3-c3e7-41bd-ac80-d8c732d0d143
|
multi
|
A test has a high false positive rate in a community. True is
|
The propoion of false-positive results among those who test positive is 1 minus the positive predictive value. False positive (discovery) rate = 1- positive predictive valueAs the disease prevalence increases, the positive predictive value increases. (PPV)As prevalence increase, PPV increase, False positive rate decrease.
| 2 |
High prevalence
|
Low prevalence
|
High sensitivity
|
High specificity
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Screening
|
d562185d-1558-4605-91e5-238eedf95e87
|
multi
|
Features of parkinsons disease-
|
Rigidity is seen in Parkinson's disease. Two types : 1) Cogwheel type, mostly upper limbs(due to tremor superimposed on rigidity) 2) Lead pipe rigidity Rigidity causes stiffness and flexed posture. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1567
| 2 |
Decreased Blinking
|
Rigidity
|
On-off phenomenon
|
Objective (downside arrow) muscle power
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
3771b372-4631-4dae-978d-d27aa7d54fcb
|
single
|
What are the major functions of "P" cells present in coical collecting ducts?
|
Sodium & water reabsorption from the lumen.Potassium secretion into the lumen.ADH controlled water reabsorption.FUNCTIONS OF 'P' CELLS:1. Sodium & water reabsorption:Reabsorbed from lumen.Occurs through Na2+ channels (ENaC channels). Approximately 3% Na reabsorption occurs.2. Potassium secretion:Secreted into lumen.K+ both secreted & reabsorbed.Note: Na2+ reabsorption & K+ secretion depends on,Na2+-K+-ATPase activity in basolateral membrane.Aldosterone.3. Water reabsorption:ADH Controlled.Stimulates water channel, aquaporin-2.
| 4 |
Sodium & water reabsorption from the lumen.
|
Potassium secretion into the lumen.
|
ADH controlled water reabsorption.
|
All of the above
|
Physiology
| null |
90b2ef0e-e1b6-4c10-8725-abe8df486d11
|
multi
|
Which one of the following is the major determinant of plasma osmolality ?
|
Sodium homeostasis Most of the body's sodium is located in the ECF, where it is by far the most abundant cation. Accordingly, total body sodium is the principal determinant of ECF volume. Sodium intake varies widely between individuals, ranging between 50 and 250 mmol/24 hrs. The kidneys can compensate for these wide variations in sodium intake by increasing excretion of sodium when there is sodium overload, and retaining sodium in the presence of sodium depletion, to maintain normal ECF volume and plasma volume. Functional anatomy and physiology The functional unit for renal excretion is the nephron (Fig. 14.2). Blood undergoes ultrafiltration in the glomerulus, generating a fluid that is free from cells and protein and which resembles plasma in its electrolyte composition. This is delivered into the renal tubules, where reabsorption of water and various electrolytes occurs. (More detail on the structure and function of the glomerulus is given in Ch. 15.) The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is approximately 125 mL/min (equivalent to 180 L/24 hrs) in a normal adult. Over 99% of the filtered fluid is reabsorbed into the blood in the peritubular capillaries during its passage through successive segments of the nephron, largely as a result of tubular reabsorption of sodium. The processes mediating sodium reabsorption, and the factors that regulate it, are key sodium plays main role in plasma osmolarity to understanding clinical disturbances and pharmacological interventions of sodium and fluid balance. The nephron can be divided into at least four different functional segments in terms of sodium reabsorption (Fig. 14.3). Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 350
| 1 |
Serum sodium
|
Serum potassium
|
Blood glucose
|
Blood urea nitrogen
|
Medicine
|
Fluid and electrolytes
|
85b91522-6665-483c-870d-269b920b66ee
|
single
|
Superior suprarenal artery is a branch of:(Repeat, Please refer Q 8, 2006)
|
Ans: c (Inferior phrenic) Ref: Chaurasia, 3rd edi., Vol-2, Pg. 266Venous drainageRight suprarenal veinIVC Left suprarenal vein Left renal veinArterial supplyArteryBranch of Superior suprarenal arteryInferior phrenic artery Middle suprarenal arteryAbdominal aorta Inferior suprarenal arteryRenal arteryNote: Accessory suprarenal glands are seen in loose areolar tissue around the main glands, spermatic cord, epididymis and broad ligament of uterus.
| 3 |
Abdominal aorta
|
Coeliac trunk
|
Inferior phrenic artery
|
Renal artery
|
Anatomy
|
Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis
|
19c4bc92-c3e4-4826-a335-2e6da3a89ac7
|
single
|
Which of the following is used to treat Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ?
|
Eculizumab is monoclonal antibody against C5 complement used in the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.
| 1 |
Eculizumab
|
Avelumab
|
Natalizumab
|
Sarilumab
|
Pharmacology
| null |
6c3f2507-b433-40df-a608-3841ff4815f8
|
single
|
Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture?
|
A i.e. MRI Radiological Investigation for urethral stricture Retrograde urethrographyQ -It should not be done within 3-4 weeks of significant urethral trauma (can cause extravasation of the dye into the spongy tissue, lymphatics & veins of pelvis). -Mainstay of investigation.
| 1 |
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
|
Retrograde urethrogram
|
Micturating cystourethrogram
|
High frequency ultrasound
|
Radiology
| null |
eb12b769-0bec-4078-a7b0-741758793c05
|
single
|
Which enzyme is not released as a proenzyme
|
Proenzyme of
- Elastase- Proelastase
- Trypsin- Trypsinogen
- Chymotrypsin- Chymotrypsinogen
| 3 |
Elastase
|
Trypsin
|
Amylase
|
Chymotrypsin
|
Physiology
| null |
7b26c7c5-9a1d-43e9-933a-c7b69ed41710
|
single
|
Dialectical behavior therapy is used in the management of
|
Dialectical behavior therapy, Transference based therapy, Mentalization therapy are used in the management of Borderline personality disorder.
| 2 |
Narcissistic PD
|
Borderline PD
|
Anti Social PD
|
Anankastic PD
|
Psychiatry
| null |
5dc3bc9d-a42a-4571-8d43-5c9a82a99e16
|
single
|
True about ulcerative colitis, all except -
|
Noncaseating granuloma is seen in Crohn disease.
| 4 |
Rectum involved
|
Pseudopolyps
|
Pancolitis
|
Noncaseating granuloma
|
Pathology
| null |
93c65b88-c176-4562-b33d-7c7fdaad34a5
|
multi
|
Most virulent dengue fever strain is ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 "Dengue type-2 strain is being considered to be more virulent strain".
| 2 |
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
Microbiology
| null |
79ee433d-0e06-41d9-9929-a749977e8d28
|
single
|
Constituents of a typical embalming solution are all except:
|
D i.e. Ethanol Formaline & methanol or methyl alcohol (as preservatives), glycerine (wetting agent), phenol (germicide)(2 are essential components of embalming (aerial & cavity) fluids.
| 4 |
Phenol
|
Glycerine
|
Formalin
|
Ethanol
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
fae435bd-9495-46ee-9e60-df705e7c802f
|
multi
|
Following are extrapyramidal tracts except
| null | 2 |
Reticulospinal
|
Corticospinal
|
Rubrospinal
|
Vestibulospinal
|
Physiology
| null |
e1f1da80-9ca9-41e8-87fa-61cfadc9a650
|
multi
|
NALGONDA technique' is used in -
|
The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute Nagpur developed a techniwue for removing flouride by chemical treatment. it is called Nalgonda techniqueREF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-596
| 1 |
Enedmic-fluorosis
|
Epidemic-dropsy
|
Endemic-ascites
|
Neurolathyrism
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Nutrition and health
|
6615dd13-425e-499f-99df-79bbc34d0de4
|
single
|
The uptake of glucose by the liver increases following a carbohydrate meal because
| null | 1 |
There is increase in phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase
|
GLUT-2 is stimulated by insulin
|
Glucokinase has a low Km for glucose.
|
Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose
|
Biochemistry
| null |
498f84f8-c413-465d-94a5-8ef1a01907ab
|
single
|
New Zealand type of school dental nurse can perform all of the following clinical duties except:
| null | 3 |
Prophylaxis
|
Pulp capping
|
Root canal treatment
|
Topical fluoride application
|
Dental
| null |
b608c4f8-34c9-487b-b735-5ac6bb60fd5c
|
multi
|
Recurrent corneal erosions are seen in: March 2011, March 2012
|
Ans. A: Corneal dystrophyEpithelial and subepithelial corneal dystrophies may present with bouts of recurrent corneal erosions Bowman layer corneal dystrophy usually presents with recurrent corneal erosionsRecurrent corneal erosionIt is characterized by the failure of the cornea's outermost layer of epithelial cells to attach to the underlying basement membrane (Bowman's layer).The condition is excruciatingly painful because the loss of these cells results in the exposure of sensitive corneal nerves.There is often a history of previous corneal injury (corneal abrasion or ulcer), but also may be due to corneal dystrophy or corneal disease.In other words, one may suffer from corneal erosions as a result of another disorder, such as map dot fingerprint diseasePresentationSymptom include recurring attacks of severe acute ocular pain, foreign-body sensation, photophobia (i.e. sensitivity to bright lights), and tearing often at the time of awakening or during sleep when the eyelids are rubbed or opened.Signs of the condition include corneal abrasion or localized roughening of the corneal epithelium, sometimes with map-like lines, epithelial dots or microcyts, or fingerprint patternsInvestigationThe erosion may be seen by using the magnification of an ophthalmoscope, although usually fluorescein stain must be applied first and a blue-light used.Use of slit lamp microscopes allow for more thorough evaluation under the higher magnification.ManagementWith the eye generally profusely watering, the type of tears being produced have little adhesive propey.Water or saline eye drops tend therefore to be ineffective.Rather a 'better quality' of tear is required with higher 'wetting ability' (i.e. greater amount of glycoproteins) and so aificial tears (e.g. viscotears) are applied frequently.Where episodes frequently occur, or there is an underlying disorder, one medical, or three types of surgical curative procedures may be attempted:Use of therapeutic contact lens, controlled puncturing of the surface layer of the eye (Anterior Stromal Puncture) and laser phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK).These all essentially try to allow the surface epithelium to reestablish with normal binding to the underlying basement membraneMedicalPatients with recalcitrant recurrent corneal erosions often show increased levels of matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) enzymes.These enzymes dissolve the basement membrane and fibrils of the hemidesmosomes, which can lead to the separation of the epithelial layer.Treatment with oral tetracycline antibiotics (such as doxycycline or oxytetracycline) together with a topical coicosteroid (such as prednisolone), reduce MMP activity and may rapidly resolve and prevent fuher episodes in cases unresponsive to conventional therapies.
| 1 |
Corneal dystrophy
|
Keratoglobus
|
Keratoconus
|
Peutz-anomalies
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
6fe6e457-5e40-49c3-ac2a-af736f8e98fd
|
single
|
IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following, EXCEPT:
|
Integrated management of childhood illnesses (IMCI) is a strategy developed by WHO and UNICEF to manage childhood illnesses in a integrated way. The diseases included are diarrhea, malaria, ARI, malnutrition and measles. IMCI was launched in four selected districts each in in Uttranchal, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Delhi, Haryana and Tamilnadu. The Indian version of IMCI has been named as Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI). Strategies wise both interventions differ in their principles; but both focus on treating more than one disease at a time. Both of them follow a horizontal approach for management of diseases. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 372, 461; The State of the World's Children: Child Survival By UNICEF, Page 35.
| 4 |
Malaria and anemia are included
|
0-7 days neonates are included
|
Emphasis on management of sick neonates over sick older children
|
Treatment is aimed at more than one disease at a time
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
5adbf30c-1d76-44b8-a31b-11f1b4e3623f
|
multi
|
DTPA scan of hypertensive young lady is normal, USG shows small kidney on left side. Next investigation will be -
|
Hypertension in a young female is most probably due to renal artery stenosis (cause fibromuscular dysplasia)
DTPA scan which shows the GFR comes to be normal because of increased renin activity.
Digital subtraction angiography or Doppler U/S will show the stenosis.
Now MRA (Magnetic resonance angiography) has replaced all previous modalities as the most sensitive (>95%) and specific test (95%) for the diagnosis of renal artery stenosis.
But the most definitive diagnostic procedure is bilateral arteriography with repeated bilateral renal vein and systemic rennin determinations.
| 3 |
CT Scan abdomen
|
Retrograde pyelogram
|
Digital subtraction angiography
|
DMSA
|
Surgery
| null |
81733660-c8d0-4645-9e1f-5646bb95bb1e
|
multi
|
Medial wall of orbit formed by:
|
A i.e., Body of sphenoid
| 1 |
Body of sphenoid
|
Lesser wing of sphenoid
|
Greater wing of sphenoid
|
All
|
Anatomy
| null |
bf5e6c27-2b7d-431e-ae80-7d4045da9fb4
|
multi
|
Common mode of transmission in pyogenic TB salpingitis:-
|
Genital TB Almost always a secondary infection Common primary sites : Lungs > Lymph > abdomen Route of spread - Hematogenous Most common site of genital TB is fallopian tubes (Bilateral involvements) > Uterus In fallopian tubes - Most commonly affected pa is ampulla Most common symptom is infeility Sites of genital TB % involvement Fallopian tubes 90 - 100% Uterus %50 -60 % Ovaries 20 - 30 % Vagina & vulva 1-2 %
| 1 |
Hematogenous
|
Lymphatic
|
Direct invasion
|
Sexually transmitted
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Genital Tract Infections (Too hot to handle!)
|
f766ac7e-48a3-463f-8daa-6a7ea5399fa8
|
multi
|
Which of the following is associated with aging
|
. Increased free radical injury
| 2 |
Reduced cross linkages in collagen
|
Increased free radical injury
|
Somatic mutations in DNA
|
Increased superoxide dismutase levels
|
Pathology
| null |
84117bf1-2b66-4639-8c39-7a62163eb819
|
single
|
The commonest cause of primary amenorrhea with ambiguous genitalia in a female with 46XX chromosome
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. 21-hydroxylase deficiency Primary amenorrhoea with virilization (ambiguous genitalia) in females is seen in21 hydroxylase def.11 hydroxylase def17-hydroxylase def. does not cause virilization. It causes in females- Primary amenorrhoea and failure of development of secondary sexual characteristics."21-hydroxylase and 11-hydroxylase deficiencies are common; the former accounts for 90-95% of the cases of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and the latter accounts for all but 1% of the remaining cases."Also know this*Congenital adrenal hyperplasiaIs commonly caused by there 4 enzyme deficiencies.21 hydroxylase def. (Complete)21 hydroxylase def. (Partial)11 hydroxylase def.17 hydroxylase def.21 hydroxylase def. Complete (Salt loosing virilizing)*Hypotension*Virilization (& Precocious puberty in males)*21 hydroxylase def. partial (Simple virilizing)*Normal B.P.*Virilization* (& Precocious puberty in males)*11 hvdroxvlase def.Hypertension*Virilization* (& Precocious puberty in males)*17 hvdroxvlase def. hypertension*Hypertension*No virilization in females*Primary amenorrhoea and failure of development of sec. sec. characteristics in females*Male hermaphrodites*
| 1 |
21 hydroxylase def.
|
17 hydroxylase def.
|
11 hydroxylase def.
|
Desmolase hydrolase def.
|
Physiology
|
Sex Hormones
|
4c20fcac-d635-4093-94ee-a4d8693ffea1
|
single
|
Operation theatres are sterilized by?
|
FORMALDEHYDE GAS is used for sterilizing instruments and heat sensitive catheters and for fumigating wards, sick rooms, and laboratories REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:36
| 3 |
Carbolic acid spraying
|
Washing with soap and water
|
Formaldehyde
|
ETO gas
|
Microbiology
|
general microbiology
|
443d59b2-486b-46ad-95f5-cec8bb04488f
|
single
|
All of the following statement are true regarding CNS infection except:
|
Ans. (b) CMV virus causes B/L temporal lobe infarction CNS manifestation of CMV: CMV rarely cause CNS infection. Two forms of CMV encephalitis are seen: Resemble HIV encephalitis and present as progressive dementia. Ventriculoencephalitis-- Characterized by cranial nerve deficit, nystagmus and ventriculomegally. In immunocompromised patient CMV can also cause subacute progressive polyradiculopathy. No where is given that CMV can cause temporal lobe infarction: Hence answer Other options: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis It is a rare chronic progressive demyelinating disease of CNS associated with a chronic permissive infection of brain tissue with measles virus. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy Progressive disorder characterised pathologically by multifocal areas of demyelination of varying size distributing throughout the CNS caused by JC virus. Spongiform encephalopathy Caused by prion infection; HIV infection.
| 2 |
Measles virus is causative agent of subacute sclerosing panecephalitis
|
Cytomegalovirus causes bilateral temporal lobe hemorrhagic infarction
|
Prion infection cause spongiform encephalopathy
|
JC virus is causative agent of progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
|
Microbiology
| null |
ea6f2181-6e24-4688-a29e-254e1e433e8f
|
multi
|
Most specific marker of pheochromocytoma:
|
Pheochromocytoma - tumor for Adrenal gland which secretes high amount of epinephrine & Nor-epinephrine catabolic products of catecholamine - VMA VMA can be measured in 24 hours urine sample
| 1 |
VMA
|
Catecholamine
|
5 - HIAA
|
Serotonim
|
Biochemistry
|
Classification and metabolism of amino acids
|
c12b2c15-e374-4f24-b4b3-e91dde3a14ce
|
single
|
You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test o Probability allows for an accurate method of calculating how much the likelihood of changes as new information (i.e., a test result) becomes available. o Probability of disease after a given test (post-term probability) can be calculated by (Bayes' theorem) Post test probability = Pretest probability x Likelihood ratio Pre test probability o It is the probability of disease before getting a test. o There is a principal "The interpretation of new information depends on old information". o That means the interpretation of a test result (post-test probability) depends on the probability of disease before test (pre-test probability). o Pre-test probability depends on prevalence, infact prevalence rate is described as pre-test probability of having a disease. Likelihood ratio o The likelihood ratio provides a direct estimate of how much a test result will change the probability of having the disease. o Tests results are often expressed as either positive or negative. o So, there is A likelihood ratio for a positive test result (LR +), and A likelihood ratio for a negative test result (LR-) o The positive likelihood ratio (LR +) tells us how much to increased the probability of a disease if the test is positive. It is calculated by following formula. The likelihood ratio is generally a better descriptor than sensitivity or specificity because it more directly describes the effect of a test result on the probability of disease and it incorporates both the sensitivity and specificity. So, in sho o To know the probability of a disease after a test (post test probability) depends upon : i) Pretest probability --> Prevalence ii) Likelihood ratio --> Specificity & sensitivity
| 1 |
Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test
|
Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
|
Incidence and prevalence of SLE
|
Relative risk of SLE in this patient
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
d3a331ba-28c7-43cd-9ef2-55ac04cac83a
|
multi
|
The triad of DM, gall stones and steatorrhoea is associated with which one of the following tumours?
| null | 2 |
Gastrinomas
|
Somatostatinomas
|
VIPomas
|
Glucagonomas
|
Medicine
| null |
bd43ac5f-76f0-42ec-a502-9265abe738f0
|
multi
|
Down&;s syndrome predisposes to ............ cancer
|
Down syndrome:- Trisomy 21 Patients with down syndrome have mental and physical retardation, flat facial profile, an upward slant of eyes and epicanthic folds. Oblique palpebral fissure seen. Nose is small with flat nasal bridge. Mouth shows narrow sho palate with small teeth and furrowed protruding tongue. There is significant hypotonia. Skull appears small and brachycephalic with flat occiput . Ears are small and dysplastic. Characteristic facial grimace on crying. Hands are sho and broad. Clinodactyly( hypoplasia of middle phalanx of fifth finger) and simian crease are usual. There is wide gap between the first and second toe( Sandle gap). Associated anomalies:- 1. Congenital hea disease- ventricular septal defect. 2. Gastrointestinal - atresia, annular pancreas and Hirschsprung disease. 3. Ophthalmic- cararact, nystagmus, squint. 4. Thyroid dysfunction 5. Conductive hearing loss Predisposes to AML. Best serological marker for down syndrome is Beta HCG. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, eighth edition
| 1 |
AML
|
CML
|
ALL
|
CLL
|
Pediatrics
|
Genetic and genetic disorders
|
6c1984b3-d8c4-4dc9-bce4-a2ab1e7b12b6
|
multi
|
Serum amyloid associated protein is form in
|
The AA (amyloid associated) type of amyloid fibriprotein is derived from a unique non- Ieg protein madeby the liver.
A fibrils are derived by proteolysis from a larger (12,000 daltons) percursorian the serum called SAA (serum amyloid - associated) protein that is synthesized in the liver and circustesbound to high density lipoproteins.
The production of SAA protein is increased in inflammatory states as part of the acute phase response, therefore, this form of amyloidosis associated with chronic inflammation, and isotten called secondary amyloidosis.
| 2 |
Alzheimer's disease
|
Chronic inflammatory states
|
Chronic renal failure
|
Malignant hypertension
|
Pathology
| null |
4a64e991-59f4-4734-a680-d5717eee518b
|
single
|
Antibody in drug induced Lupus
|
Anti-Histone antibodies - Drug induced Lupus.
Anti-Ribosomal antibodies - CNS Lupus.
| 4 |
Anti-smith
|
Anti-phospholipid
|
Anti-Ribosomal
|
Anti-Histone
|
Medicine
| null |
51cc7193-0592-489a-b843-d5c227a56bfc
|
single
|
Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except?
|
G6PD deficiency does not present with pancyopenia. Cause of Pancytopenia with Cellular Bone Marrow Primary bone marrow diseases Myelodysplasia Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Myelofibrosis Some aleukemicleukemia Myelophthisis Bone marrow lymphoma Hairy cell leukemia Secondary to systemic diseases Systemic lupus erythematosus Hypersplenism B12, folate deficiency Overwhelming infection Alcohol Brucellosis Sarcoidosis Tuberculosis Leishmaniasis
| 4 |
Megaloblastic anemia
|
Myelodysplasia
|
Paroxysmal nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
|
G6PD Deficiency
|
Medicine
|
Sickle Cell Disease, G6PD deficiency and other Hemolytic Anemia
|
0a208d95-5bd3-4b6c-b3f0-c0dffb8a39b8
|
multi
|
In Roll Back Malaria program, which of the following is not a component?
| null | 3 |
Training for health care worker
|
Using Insecticide-treated bednets
|
Developing newer insecticides
|
Strengthening health system
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
5841a9a1-99c0-42b7-b8f7-71580d2d3c22
|
single
|
Patient presents with fasting sugar as 167mg/dl, skin pigmentation and hypogonadism. His liver enzymes showed SGOT as 678 and SGPT as 692. Most probable diagnosis is?
|
Hemochromstosis clinical features Initial symptoms are often nonspecific and include lethargy, ahralgia, skin pigmentation, loss of libido, and features of diabetes mellitus. Hepatomegaly, increased pigmentation, spider angiomas, splenomegaly, ahropathy, ascites, cardiac arrhythmias, congestive hea failure, Excessive skin pigmentation is present in patients with advanced disease. The characteristic metallic or slate-gray hue is sometimes referred to as bronzing and results from increased melanin and iron in the dermis. Pigmentation usually is diffuse and generalized . Diabetes mellitus occurs in ~65% of patients with advanced disease and is more likely to develop in those with a family history of diabetes, suggesting that direct damage to the pancreatic islets by iron deposition occurs in combination with other risk factors . The liver is usually the first organ to be affected, and hepatomegaly is present in >95% of symptomatic patients. Ref - harrisons 20e p2980
| 3 |
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
|
Wilson's disease
|
Hemochromatosis
|
Glycogen storage disease
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
1ea41bf0-2eb6-4a2d-94f8-0302b3257078
|
single
|
This tympanogram is seen in:
|
Flat line is seen on tympanometry in patient with a perforation in tympanic membrane. It is not indicated in cases with a diagnosis of perforation of tympanic membrane. However it can be of help in cases with a suspicion of very small perforation in TM (not clearly visible on otoscopy). Flat line confirms a perforation in Tympanic membrane.
| 3 |
OME
|
Otosclerosis
|
CSOM
|
Osssicular chain discontinuity
|
Unknown
| null |
d5f6c7a6-b208-4653-9913-bee93596fd65
|
single
|
Treatment of choice for sternocleido-mastoid tumour is:
|
The presence of a lateral neck mass in infancy in association with rotation of the head toward the opposite side of the mass results from fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The mass may be palpated in the affected muscle in approximately two thirds of cases. In the overwhelming majority of cases, physical therapy based on passive stretching of the affected muscle is of benefit. Rarely, surgical transection of the sternocleidomastoid muscle may be indicated. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
| 1 |
Physiotherapy
|
Surgical resection
|
Intralesional steroids
|
None of the above
|
Surgery
| null |
bc88d659-cfdc-406f-842e-bfffcff1b4b5
|
multi
|
In MI following are used except
|
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1605 The principal goal of fibrinolysis is prompt restoration of full coronary aerial patency. The fibrinolytic agents tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), streptokinase, tenecteplase (TNK), and reteplase (rPA) have been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for intravenous use in patients with STEMI. These drugs all act by promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plas- min, which subsequently lyses fibrin thrombi.
| 2 |
Fibrinolytics
|
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
|
Antithrombin
|
Platelet inhibitor
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
85e1b3aa-a5bc-49fa-a7cd-cb8e15997053
|
multi
|
Emergency retentive force for the maxillary complete denture is:
|
Base of the tongue provides emergency retentive force.
| 2 |
Posterior palatal seal.
|
Base of the tongue.
|
Soft palate.
|
Deep palate.
|
Dental
| null |
51623114-63b0-4b12-b1c3-5750e9477096
|
single
|
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