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Intravenous agent does not causes pain:-
IV anesthetic causing pain - Oxybarbiturate - Methohexitone- Propofol- Etomidate Among neuro muscular blockers- IV Rocuronium (pain on injection)
3
Methohexetal
Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate
Anaesthesia
NEET 2019
d755401e-0d3b-45c7-8af8-bffc81a84bf1
single
Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respec:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p629) Cimetidine is rarely used now because: It is the leat potent H2 blocker It is a sho acting agent It is a potent inhibitor of microsomal enzymes It can cause gynaecomastia It produces more CNS adverse effects
3
It is less potent
It is shoer acting
It does not have anti-androgenic action
It produces more CNS side effects
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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Tocolytics are beneficial in preterm labour because:
They provide time for antenatal steroids
3
They arrest preterm labour
They decrease prenatal moality
They provide time for antenatal steroids
They prolong pregnancy to term
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Appreciation of color is function of?
Ans. b (Cones). (Ref. Parsons, Disease of Eye, 19th /131; Khurana 3rd/ 250; Ganong, Physiology, 21st /166)COLOR VISION# Sensation of any colour is determined by the relative frequency of impulses for cone system# The appreciation of colors is function of cones and occurs in photopic vision.# Normal color vision is trichromatic, the basis of Young Helmotz theory of colour vision.# Other theories of color vision are:- Hering or Hurvich and James Law (trichromatic signal from cones fed into subsequent neural stage and exhibit spectral apponent and spectral non-opponent property), and- Edwin land wavelength theory.# Cones are photoreceptors tightly packed in fovea centralis where there are no rods and other layers of retina are very thin here.# Central part of fovea constitutes of cones and their nuclei largely; all other retinal layers are absent.
2
Rods
Cones
Both
None
Ophthalmology
Retina
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multi
All the following statements regarding malignant potential of colorectal polyps are true except ?
Ans is (b) ie., pseudopolyps of ulcerative colitis has high risk of malignancy Pseudopolyps associated with inflammatory bowel disease (and amoebic & ischemic colitis) are not premalignant lesion -
2
Polyps of the familial polyposis coli could invariably undergo malignant change
Pseudopolyps of ulcerative colitis has high risk of malignancy
Villous adenoma is associated with high risk of malignancy.
Juvenile polyps have little or no risk
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is false regarding TRALI?
Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 666 TRALI: Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is a syndrome characterized by acute respiratory distress following transfusion. All plasma-containing blood products have been implicated including rare reports of IVIG and cryoprecipitate It is a rare complication of allogeneic blood transfusion Two theories on the pathogenesis of TRALI have been proposed Antibodies to white blood cell antigens (HLA, granulocyte and monocyte) Clinical condition of the patient (e.g. sepsis, trauma, etc) which causes sequestration of primed neutrophils in the activated pulmonary endothelium
4
Due to release of mediators from the neutrophils in the lungs
Occurs within 6 hours of tramsfusion
Occurs more common when the donor is a multiparous lady
All of the above
Unknown
null
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Which of the following is the lateral curve of the body in strychnine poisoning -
null
3
Optisthotonus
Emprosthotonus
Pleurosthotonus
None of the above
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
True about Crescent fracture is:
D. i.e. Fracture of iliac bone with disruption of sacroiliac joint Cresent Fracture, is a type II lateral compression injury that is veically stable (d/ t maintainence of pa of posterior SI ligament, sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments) but rotationally unstable (d/t veical disruption of iliac wing). The fracture extends from posterior iliac crest, passing through iliac wing (just behind gluteal pillar), and may then exit in greater sciatic notch or more commonly may enter the sacroiliac (S I) joint - which is then disrupted inferiorly pretending of as fracture dislocation of SI joint complex. The injury leaves a crescent shaped poion of iliac wing attached to the superior aspect of the sacrum, held in place by stout SI ligament. Lateral compression I are the most common pelvic ring disruption injuries. The fracture often passes through sacral foramina (outlet view) or causing buckling of anterior sacral coex only (best seen on CT or inlet view). These are veically stable and rotationally unstable (to some degree). Lateral compression III occurs when lateral (internally rotating) force compressing one side of ring continues and opens up (externally rotates) the hemipelvis of other side. An internal rotation vector causing sacral or iliac wing compression fracture on one side becomes an external rotation vector on opposite hemipelvis manifesting as paial or complete disruption of SI joint; thus leading to wind swept pelvis appearance. These are rotationally as well as veically unstable (d/t ligamentous injury).
4
Anteroposterior instability with rotational stability
Diastasis of pubis with pubic rami fracture
Antero-posterior compression is the mechanism of injury
Fracture of the iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption
Surgery
null
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multi
Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of thrombolytic agent in the setting off an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction -
null
1
History of CVA with hemiparesis one month ago
Diabetic retinopathy
Patient's age more thari 70 years
Patient is on warfarin for A.F. with INR ration 1:8
Medicine
null
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multi
Drug not used in Type 1 Lepra reacaEUR' tion is:
Thalidomide
4
Antileprotics
Analgesics
Coicosteroids
Thalidomide
Skin
null
cd5e8d7d-167b-4da3-a651-9252762f1789
single
What percentage (%) of sub-lingual salivary gland tumours is malignant?
null
2
80
85
90
95
Pathology
null
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single
Base of Submental triangle is formed by
Boundaries of Sub Mental Triangle Apex - Symphysis Menti Base - Hyoid Bone On each side - Anterior belly of Digastric Content - Sub Mental nodes Floor - Mylohyoid
3
Chin
Omohyoid
Hyoid
Diagastric
Anatomy
Neck Triangles and parotid gland
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single
Gastrointestinal stromal malignancy arises from which of the following -
"Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) originate from the interstitial cells of Cajal, which controls gastrointestinal peristalsis." On rare occasions, gastric GISTs occur as part of tumor - syndrome, such as :- Carney's trads → Gastric GIST, Paraganglioma and pulmonary chondroma. Neurofibromatosis Type I Histologically, GISTs can be divided into Spindle types → Exhibit spindle cells Epithelioid types → Exhibit epithelioid cells Mixed types → A mixture of both
3
Smooth muscle
Nerve cells
Interstitial cells of Cajal
Vascular Endothelium
Pathology
null
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single
Chvostek/Weiss sign seen in which poisoning
acute poisoning. the patient may suffer from tingling and paresthesia, intermittent cramps and carpopedal spasm due to hyperirritability of peripheral nerves(Chvostek/Weiss sign) as a result of hypocalcemia. Patient may go into stupor, coma, and death may be due to respiratory failure. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 412
1
Oxalic acid poisoning
Carbolic acid poisoning
Boric acid poisoning
Formic acid poisoning
Anatomy
Poisoning
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The reference protein is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Egg Eggs are used in nutrition studies as a "reference protein" as eggs proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because of their high biological value and digestibility. So NPU is also high because it is the product of biological value and digestibility cofficient divided by 100.
2
Fish
Egg
Rice
Lemon
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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In glycolysis, insulin affects all of the following enzymes except:
The activation as well as the quantities of ceain key enzymes of glycolysis, namely glucokinase (NOT hexokinase), phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are increased by insulin.
4
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Biochemistry
null
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The major clinical use of nimodipine is in:
null
3
Hypertension
Angina pectoris
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Raynaud's phenomenon
Pharmacology
null
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Immature bony trabeculae are found in
null
1
Fibrous dysplasia
Paget's disease
Rickets
Cleidocranial Dysplasia
Pathology
null
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Cells associated with humoral immunity is: September 2005
Ans. B: B cells Humoral immunity is that aspect of specific immunity which is mediated by B lymphocytes and involves the binding of antibodies to antigens Characteristics: Acquired humoral immunity is the recognition of antigens associated with microorganisms or foreign substances. This recognition is coupled with the ability to initiate appropriate actions (e.g., antibody production) against these microorganisms or foreign substances. Acquired humoral immunity may be subdivided into: - that acquired actively - that acquired passively Cellular immunity: * For immunity mediated by cytoxic T cells, an antigen is always a protein or a poion of a protein. * This is because only peptides (protein fragments) interact with MHC (major histocompatibility complex) and cell mediated immunity requires interaction with these MHC-associated peptides.
2
NK cells
B cells
T cells
Null cells
Microbiology
null
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A 66-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of scaling and abnormal pigmentation of the skin. Her past medical history is significant for the treatment of thyroid cancer 1 year ago. Biopsy of lesional skin shows atrophy of the epidermis and dense fibrosis of the dermis, which displays dilated superficial blood vessels. These pathologic findings are most likely caused by previous exposure to which of the following?
Ionizing radiation administered for the treatment of cancer must first traverse the skin, leading to radiation dermatitis. Skin biopsy shows atrophy of the epidermis and dense fibrosis of the dermis, which displays dilated superficial blood vessels. In some cases, persistent ulcers require skin grafts. The other choices do not cause these dermal findings.Diagnosis: Radiation injury
4
Chemotherapy
Corticosteroids
Organic iodine
Radiation therapy
Pathology
Environment & Nutritional Pathology
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Stony dull note on percussion is characteristic of
Pleural Effusion - Percussion findings Stony dullness with increased resistance and no shifting dullness below the level of fluid.Skodaic resonance (boxy note) just above the effusionObliteration of Traube&;s space in left side effusionGrocco&;s triangle: Triangular area of dullness against veebral column, at the base of opposite lung, due to collapse&; of lungEllis&;S&; shaped curve(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg no: 2178-2180)
1
Pleural effusion
Consolidation
Pleurisy
Tuberculosis cavity
Pathology
All India exam
b8311f72-84a4-4549-b189-f263d83cfc19
single
Which of the following condition is associated with Macular edema?
Cystoid macular edema occur following retinal vascular disorders such as diabetic retinopathy caused by diabetes mellitus and central retinal vein occlusion. It can also occur as a post operative complication following cataract extraction and penetrating keratoplasty, following intraocluar inflammation, as a side effect of adrenaline eyedrops and in retinal dystrophies. Must know: Cystoid macular edema: It refers to collection of fluid in the outer plexiform layer (Henle's layer) and inner nuclear layer of the retina centred around the foveola. It occur due to leakage of fluid following breakdown of inner blood retinal barrier. Ophthalmoscopy in this case shows honey comb appearence. Fundus fluorescein angiography shows flower petal appearence. Ref: Comprehensive Ophthalmology By AK Khurana, 4th edn, page 273
3
CRAO
Papilledema
Diabetes mellitus
Age related macular degeneration
Ophthalmology
null
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Drug used for treatment of Scorpion sting is:
Ref; Harrison's principles of internal medicine 18th edition (page no; 3580) keeping the patient calm and applying pressure dressing and cold packs to the sting site are measures to decrease the absorption of venom. Iv infusion of midazolam to control agitation, flailing and involuntary movements Close monitoring during treatment with this drug and other sedatives or narcotics necessary For persons with neuromuscular symptoms like Hypeension and pulmonary oedema, response to nifedipine, nitroprusside, hydralazine, prazosin is seen
4
Adrenaline
Morphine
Captopril
Prazosin
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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single
All of the following are recognized features of pseudotumor cerebri, except:
Pseudotumor CerebriAlso called as idiopathic intracranial hypeension Pseudotumor cerebri (PTC), is a neurological disorder that is characterized by increased intracranial pressure (pressure around the brain) in the absence of a tumor or other diseases. Occur in young and obese woman Symptoms - headache, nausea, and vomiting, pulsatile tinnitus, double vision, swelling of the optic disc in the eye, which can progress to vision lossCauses of Pseudotumor cerebriDiagnostic criteria - Modified Dandy criteriaHigh-dose vitamin A derivatives (e.g. isotretinoin for acne), long-term tetracycline antibiotics (for a variety of skin conditions) and hormonal contraceptivesSecondary intracranial hypeension includes obstructive sleep apnea (a sleep-related breathing disorder), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), chronic kidney disease, and Behcet&;s diseaseSymptoms of raised intracranial pressure (headache, nausea, vomiting, transient visual obscurations, or papilledema)No localizing signs with the exception of abducens (sixth) nerve palsy)The patient is awake and aleNormal CT/MRI findings without evidence of thrombosisLP opening pressure of >25 cmH2O and normal biochemical and cytological composition of CSFNo other explanation for the raised intracranial pressureManagement Discontinue the offending drug & treat the etiology Weight reduction Lumbar puncture offers transient relief Surgical management Optic nerve sheath fenestrationLumboperitoneal shunt Venous sinus stenting (Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg no: 123,233)
3
Papilledema
Absence of true localizing neurological deficit
Increased protein content in the CSF
Normal sized ventricles on CT scanning
Medicine
All India exam
42f83ddf-ec65-4ff8-8b23-4b82f8f06066
multi
Systematic observation and recording of activities of individuals carried out at predetermined or random intervals is known as:
Systematic observation and recording of activities of individuals carried out at predetermined or random intervals is known as work sampling. It provides quantitative measurement of various activities. It helps in standardising methods of performing jobs and determining manpower needs of any organisation. Ref: Park 22nd edition pg: 815.
2
Input output analysis
Work sampling
Network analysis
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
In duschene the knee jerk ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., May be normal initially lateron decrease Duchenne and Becker's muscular dystrophy. X-like recessive So expression of gene is essentially confirmed in males. Females are affected only if X-chromosome carrying the normal allele is lost or inactivated Becker is milder form with late onset and slow progression. In duchenni, onset is early with deloyed misection. Pseudohyperophy of calf muscle, glutei, deltiod, Gower sign may positive at age of 3 year. Cardiac involvement staed at 10 year of age. Deep tendon reflexes remain normal or are decreased in patients with DMD. Ankle jerks are relatively preserved until the terminal stages, while the knee jerk reflex is less brisk than the ankles by age six, but is eventually lost. Histopathology shows diffuse degeneration & regeneration of muscle fibre. Serum CPX are markedly high.
4
Exaggerrated
Decrease
May be normal initially lateron increase
May be normal initially lateron decrease
Pediatrics
null
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Deficiency of which one of the following dietary components is most likely to have caused this rash?
Answer C. NiacinThe symmetric, scaly, sunburn-like, hyperpigmented rash extending from the hands to a clearly demarcated border midway up the arm suggests a photosensitive distribution, most consistent with pellagra (niacin deficiency). Deficiency of the other listed dietary components is not typically associated with a photosensitive dermatitis in this area.
3
Biotin
Folate
Niacin
Riboflavin
Medicine
Nutrition
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single
The following is a feature of Korsakoff's psychosis:-
Korsakoff's syndrome - 1 amnesia - anterograde amnesia is common especially a profound impairment of recent memory. The patient can recall events immediately after they have occurred, but cannot do so even a few minutes afterwards. Gaps in memory are often filled by confabulation. 2 confabulation - false story/ honest lying because patient cannot recall event that occur sometime Before Wernicke's encephalopathy is completely reversible with treatment, only about 20 percent of patients with Korsakoff's syndrome recover. The pathophysiological connection between the two syndromes is thiamine deficiency, caused either by poor nutritional habits or by malabsorption problems
1
Confabulation
Encephalopathy
Ophthalmoplegia
Hallucination
Psychiatry
NEET 2018
a8a2cd77-ba4f-43a6-93d8-414001525561
multi
NO is synthesized by:
D i.e. Arginine
4
Uracil
Aspaate
Guanosine
Arginine
Physiology
null
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single
Yaws is caused by -
null
4
Treponema pallidum
Treponema carateum
Treponema refringens
Treponema pertenue
Microbiology
null
068e9abf-62f1-4d8c-a5ae-58528b437872
multi
Color of diphtheretic membrane is –
null
1
Grey
White
Yellow
Cream
Pediatrics
null
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single
Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect of
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bleomycin Pulmonary infiltrates are seen with 3 of the given options - Methotrexate Bleomycin CyclophosphamidePulmonary fibrosis is seen with two of the given optionsBleomycin (Page 1395 G & G 10th/e)Cyclophosphamide (page 1430 G & G 10th/e)I have gone for Bleomycin because pulmonary involvement is most common with Bleomycin."The most serious adverse reaction to Bleomycin is pulmonary toxicity, which begins with dry, cough, fine rales, and diffuse basilar infiltrates on x-ray and may progress to life threatening pulmonary fibrosis"
3
Methotrexate
Vincristine
Bleomycin
Cyclophosphamide
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
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Satellite lesion in a cornial ulcer with feathery margin and fixed hypopyon is a feature of:
There are specific corneal features are seen in fungal corneal ulceration. In terms of corneal infiltration the classic and specific findings are feathery and elevated margins, leathery texture, dry appearance, grey-brown pigmentation, satellite lesions, fixed hypopyon (not moving with change in head position) and endothelial plaque. The most common pathogen that invades a preexisting defect is Candida which is a filamentous fungus. Aspergillus, which is a filamentous fungus, is the principal cause of post-traumatic infection. Ref: Concise Textbook of Ophthalmology By Sharma, 2006, Page 99 ; Khurana, 4th ed, Page 100
2
Trachoma
Fungal
Angular
Herpes
Ophthalmology
null
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Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditory canal is known as:
Ans. a. Bill's bar Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditory canal is known as Bill's bar."Vertical crest in fundus of internal auditory canal is known as Bill's-barand it is used as a surgical landmark for facial nerve identification. Grays 40/e p636
1
Bill's bar
Ponticulus
c, Cog
Falciform crest
Anatomy
Ear
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single
38 year old man Babbu, a chronic alcoholic, presents with pain in abdomen. On examination his liver is enlarged and serum a fetoprotein is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer is A (Hepatocellular carcinoma) Presence of elevated serum a fetopotein in the background of chronic history of alcohol consumption (risk factor for HCC) leads us to the diagnosis pf hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP is the most specific and an ideal tumor marker for primary Ca of the liver i.e, Hepatocellular Carcinoma The presence and persistence of high levels of serum AFP (Over 500 to 1000mg/L) in an adult with liver disease, and liithmit an obvious gastrointestinal tumor strongly suggests Hepatocellular CA. AFP levels as tumor marker Liver cell carcinoma: Hepatocellular carcinoma Hepatoblastoma Non seminomatous germ cell tumors of testes and ovary: Choriocarcinoma Embryonal carcinoma Yolk sac tumors Teratoma Teratocarcinoma Gastrointestinal tumors AFP levels mar also he increased in non neoplastic conditions like cirrhosi & hepatitis.
1
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Liver cell hyperplasia
Hepatic adenoma
Hepatitis
Medicine
null
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single
The main ingredient in dental plaster is:
null
1
Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
Calcium phosphate
Calcium anhydrate
Calcium sulphate dihydrate
Dental
null
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single
Most useful investigation in sliding hernia in female -
• The hernia may be visible on a plain radiograph of the chest as a gas bubble, often with a fluid level behind the heart. • A barium meal is the best method of diagnosis. • The endoscopic appearances may be confusing, especially in large hernias when it is easy to become disorientated.
2
Fluoroscopy
Barium-meal
Palpation method
Ultrasound
Surgery
null
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A 42 year old man comes to ENT OPD. He is a follow up case of recurrent sinus and ear infection from past 1 year. It is also associated with headache. He gives history of pollen allergy. Currently, he presented with complains of blood tinged sputum and cough. Chest x ray is done with B/L nodular infiltrates and cavitary infiltrates. CT SCAN is planned. CT guide biopsy is planned from the above x ray located mass and is shown below: Lab investigation reveal raised ESR and c ANCA positivity Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?
X ray shows bilateral nodular shadow with cavitary lesion i/v/o clinical s/s and lab investigation-possibility of wegener granulomatosis exists. CT scan shows multiple bilateral cavitary lesions. HPE- Histiocytes and giant cells surrounding a central necrotic zone. Vasculitis: neutrophils and lymphocytes involving aeriole wall. Recurrent sinusitis with hemoptysis raises following differential diagnosis: Acute bronchitis Wegener granulomatosis Churg strauss syndrome Goodpasture syndrome Bronchogenic carcinoma Upper and lower respiratory symptoms. With significant cxr and HPE , elevated ESR and cANCA positivity is suggestive of WEGENER granulomatosis as the diagnosis.
3
Wegener granulomatosis
Churg strauss sundrome
Rheumatoid lung involvement
Good pasture syndrome
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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multi
The pivot test is for
A i.e. Anterior cruciate
1
Anterior cruciate ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial meniscus
Lateral meniscus
Surgery
null
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single
A child with unilateral white reflex and raised intraocular pressure. the required investigation are all except
In a child, a detailed retinal examination, tonometry, corneal diameter, gonioscopy, etc can only be done under anaesthesia Refer khurana 6/e
4
Usg
Tonometer
Observation under anaesthesia
CT scan
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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Paralysis in polio is characterized by
Types of Paralytic Poliomyelitis Spinal poliomyelitis (MC type) : Lower motor neurone lesion of the anterior horn cells of spinal cord which affects the muscles of the legs, arms and/or trunk asymmetrically Bulbar poliomyelitis: Involvement of lower cranial nerves Bulbospinal poliomyelitis : Involvement of both Bulbar cranial nerves and spinal cord Ref: Hutchinson's Atlas of pediatric physical diagnosis 1st edition Pgno : 271
4
Exaggerated tendon reflexes
Symmetrical paralysis
Tonic paralysis
Lower motor neurone type
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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single
The only Species of Shigella that produces exotoxin
.
4
Shigella sonnei
Shigella flexneri
Shigella boydii
Shigella dysenteriae
Pathology
All India exam
b70ec7e3-5da7-4e71-b70d-d2016a542b37
single
The Blade of the laryngoscope used in intubation of newborn is
The Macintosh blade is the most widely used of the curved laryngoscope blades, while the Miller blade is the most popular style of straight blade. The Miller blades are commonly used for infants.Uncuffed tubes are limited mostly to pediatric patients (in small children, the cricoid cailage, the narrowest poion of the pediatric airway, often provides an adequate seal for mechanical ventilation).
3
Curved blade with uncuffed tube
Straight blade with Cuffed tube
Straight blade with uncuffed tube
Curved blade with cuffed tube
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
66e19c7b-f86c-4e29-a0c7-f38690ad90d8
single
Uterus develops from-
A i.e. Mullerian duct
1
Mullerian duct
Wolfian duct
Both
None
Anatomy
null
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multi
A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department unconscious following a motor vehicle accident. She is placed on telemetry to monitor her vitals continuously, and she remains hypotensive despite receiving a bolus of fluids and being placed on IV fluids. She regains consciousness and her pulse is 180/mm. Her ECG shows regularly spaced narrow, QRS complexes. No P wave is visible in most leads, but there is a small downward deflection immediately following QRS complexes in lead II. A carotid massage is performed, and her pulse is reduced to 80/rn in. Stimulation of the afferent fibres in which of the following nerves most likely resulted in the favourable response observed?
null
3
Cardiac sympathetic nerves
Carotid sympathetic nerves
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Medicine
null
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multi
A young motorist suffered injuries in a major road traffic accident. He was diagnosed to have a fracture of the left femur and left humerus. He was also having fractures of multiple ribs anteriorly on both the sides. In the examination, the blood pressure was 80/ 60 mm Hg. and heart rate was 140/minute. The patient was agitated, restless, and tachypneic. Jugular veins were distended. Air entry was adequate in both the lung fields. Heart sounds were barely audible. Femoral pulses were weakly palpable but distally no pulsation could be felt. On a priority basis, the immediate intervention would be -
null
2
Rapid blood transfusion.
Urgent pericardial tap.
Intercostal tube drainage on both the sides.
Fixation of left femur and repair of femoral artery.
Medicine
null
cc94d774-751d-4133-a78d-23b3d5247b8c
multi
KISHORI SHAKTI YOJANA has been designed to improve nutritional status of
null
4
Adult men
Senior citizens
Under five children
Adolescent girls
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b08a4524-efe2-4f96-bd7e-88ccdc56a9aa
single
Which of the following poison is associated with the development of Acrodynia?
Acrodynia also known as pink disease is characterised by a generalised pink rash. It is a idiosyncratic hypersensitivity reaction of insidious onset with anorexia, insomnia, sweating, skin rash, photophobia, puffy hands and feet and peeling of skin. It occurs as a result of chronic exposure to mercury and usually in children. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine And Toxicology by Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy 27th edition; Pages 468; 469; 476.
1
Mercury
Oxalic acid
Phenolic acid
Carbolic acid poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
e39cc89d-ae95-4beb-ae06-a45bf5830a60
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All are features of early gastric carcinoma except:
Ans. is 'c' ie Muscularis Propria involvement Early gastric cancer is defined as adenocarcinoma limited to the mucosa and submucosa of the stomach regardless of the lymphonodi status.Approximately 10% of patients with early gastric cancer are found to have lymph node metastasis on presentation.Overall cure rate with adequate gastric resection and lymphadenectomy is -95%.It has the best prognosis among stomach cancer subtypes.
3
Mucosal involvement
Submucosal involvement
Muscularis propria involvement
Dysplasia with Ca in situ
Surgery
Malignant Gastric Disease
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Schwartz sign is seen in
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Otosclerosis FINDINGS IN OTOSCLEROSISSymptoms of otosclerosiso Hearing loss Bilateral conductive deafness which is painless and progressive with insidious onset. In cochlear otosclerosis sensorineural hearing loss also occur along with conductive deafness,o Paracusis willissii An otosclerotic patient hears better in noisy than quiet surroundings.o Tinnitus More common in cochlear otosclerosis.o Speech Monotonous, well modulated soft speech,o Vertigo is uncommon.Signs in otosclerosiso Tympanic membrane is quite normal and mobile.o In 10% of cases flamingo - pink blush is seen through the tympanic membrane called as Schwartze sign,o Various tests show conductive hearing loss.Tuning fork tests in otosclerosiso As otosclerotic patients have conductive deafness, the tuning fork tests results will be as followsRinnes NegativeWebers Lateralized to the ear writh greater conductive loss.Absolute bone conduction (ABC) Normal (can be decreased in cochlear otosclerosis).4) Gelles testNo change in the hearing through bone conduction when air pressure of ear canal is increased by Siegle's speculum.Audiometry in otosclerosiso Audiometry is one of the important tools in evaluation of a patient of otosclerosis. Various audiometric tests are1) Pure tone audiometry# Shows loss of air conduction. more for lower frequencies with characteristic rising pattern. Bone conduction is normal. However in some cases, there is a dip in bone conduction curve which is maximum at 2000 Hz (2 KHz) and is called the Carhart's notch.Remembero Dip in bone conduction in otosclerosis (Carhart's notch)o Dip in noise induced hearing loss (Acoustic dip)- 2000 Hz- 4000 Hz2) Impedance audiometry# Impedance audiometry showsTympanometryo Patient with early disease may show type A tympanogram (because middle ear areation is not affected) Progressive stapes fixation results in classical As type tympanogram.Acoustic (stapedial reflex)o It is one of the earliest sign of otosclerosis and preceedes the development of airbone gap. In early stage, diphasic on-off pattern is seen in which there is a brief increase in compliance at the onset and at the termination of stimulus occurs. This is pathognomonic of otosclerosis. In later stage the reflex is absent.
1
Otosclerosis
Serous otitis media
CSOM
ASOM
ENT
Otosclerosis
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A 65 year old smokes presents with right Inguinal mass, He complains of recent difficulty with micturation and nocturia. The swelling which does not extend to the scrotum,reduce when resting.what is the likely diagnosis.
null
1
Direct Inguinal hernia
Strangulated indirect inguinal hernia
Hydrocele
Cyst of the cord
Surgery
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Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by ?
null
1
Incorporating it in liposomal complex
Combining with fluconazole
Combining with flucytosine
Injecting the drug with dextrose
Pharmacology
null
2c45d0b3-5194-414d-96ed-462d5de108d5
single
Both antibody dependent and independent complement pathway converge on which of the following complement component ?
. C3
1
C3
C5
C1q
C8
Pathology
null
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multi
Features of lewy body dementia are all except:
Revised criteria for the clinical diagnosis of Lewy body dementia: 1.Fluctuating Cognition 2.Recurrent Visual hallucination 3.REM sleep behaviour disorder 4.Cardinal feature of Parkinsonism (one or more)
3
Recurrent visual hallucination
Spontaneous motor feature
Autonomic dysfunction
Fluctuating cognition
Psychiatry
Organic Mental Disorders
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multi
Maternal mortality refers to maternal deaths from causes related to or aggravated by pregnancy and its management during –
null
4
Pregnancy, child birth or first seven days after delivery
Child birth or first fourteen days after delivery
First 28 days after delivery
Pregnancy, child birth or first 42 days after delivery
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6a033b50-b348-4c0c-bc46-5db4d2802cf5
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Maltese cross is seen on polarizing microscopy in which of following?
In Polarized light maltese cross appearance is seen in cryptococcus. So-called "Maltese cross formations" on the blood film are essentially diagnostic of babesiosis, since they are not seen in malaria, the primary differential diagnosis. Ref: Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzneron T.A. (2010). Chapter 45. Medical Mycology. In G.F. Brooks, K.C. Carroll, J.S. Butel, S.A. Morse, T.A. Mietzneron (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 25e.
1
Cryptococcus neoformans
Penicillium marneffei
Plasmodium falciparum
Candida albicans
Microbiology
null
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single
Thinning of cornea occurs in –
Essential pathological changes in keratoconus are thinning and ectasia.
4
Megalocornea
Bullous keratopathy
Endothelial dystrophy
Keratoconus
Ophthalmology
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All is exempted from oral testimony except-
Oral testimony is not required in:- Dying declaration. Deposition of medical witness taken in lower court. Evidence given by a witness in a previous judicial proceedings. Expert opinion expressed in a treatise (ex. book). Report of a certain government scientific experts eg. chemical examiner, assistant chemical examiner, chief inspector of explosive, director of finger print bureau. Statement by persons who cannot be called as witness (the person is either dead, untraceable or has become incapable of giving evidence or cannot be called without unreasonable delay or expense to the court).
2
Dying declaration
Medical evidence of injury as witness
Chemical examination report
Evidence of medical expert in lower court
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
In optic atrophy, the optic disc appears pale, is index of-
Disappearance of vascularity of the disc causes increase in pallor.
2
Atrophy of the nerve fibre
Loss of vasculature
Gliosis
All of the above
Ophthalmology
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Trichology is the forensic examination of
Examination of hair(Trichiology) can provide valuable information in crime investigation. forensic trichiology : The first step of forensic identification and comparison of hairs begins with whole mount light microscopy. The hair(s) in question must be identified as to species, race and body (somatic) origin. Human hairs can be readily distinguished from animal hairs in primarily by examining the cuticles and medullae .Individualizing human hairs is done by examining coex features and by analyzing DNA. Forensic laboratory repos of hair comparisons normally will provide one of three answers: The hairs matched in microscopic characteristics, indicating an association. The hairs are not alike and therefore did not come from the same person. No conclusion can be drawn from the evidence. This may be due to insufficient specimen, racial mixtures, or unsuitable exemplars. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE No 107
1
Hair
Finger nails
Skin
Lip prints
Anatomy
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Bulb of posterior horn of lateral ventricle is formed by
Bulb of posterior horn is present on medial wall of posterior horn of lateral ventricle and is formed by fibers of forceps major.
3
Collateral sulcus
calcarine sulcus
Forceps major
Stria terminalis
Anatomy
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Larvae of which of the following lies parallel to surface of water : September 2007
Ans. A: Anopheles Mosquito larvae have a well-developed head with mouth brushes used for feeding, a large thorax and a segmented abdomen. They have no legs. In contrast to other mosquitoes, Anopheles larvae lack a respiratory siphon and for this reason position themselves so that their body is parallel to the surface of the water. Larvae breathe through spiracles located on the 8th abdominal segment and therefore must come to the surface frequently. The larvae spend most of their time feeding on algae, bacteria, and other microorganisms in the surface microlayer. They dive below the surface only when disturbed. Larvae swim either by jerky movements of the entire body or through propulsion with the mouth brushes.
1
Anopheles
Culex
Aedes
Sandfly
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?
Food poisoning with E. coli 0157/H7 causes hemorrhagic colitis; it is often seen after eating beef hamburgers. The same organism also causes a hemorrhagic uremic syndrome. The toxin, called Shiga-like toxin, can be demonstrated in Vero cells, but the cytotoxicity must be neutralized with specific antiserum. With the exception of sorbitol fermentation, there is nothing biochemically distinctive about these organisms.
4
Shigella
Salmonella
Aeromonas
E. coli 0157/H7
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Most impoant investigation for posterior urethral valve: March 2011
Ans. D: Micturating cystogram (MCU) Micturating cystography is mainly done to assess urethra for any outflow obstruction and stress incontinence Also done to demonstrate vesico-ureteric reflux especially in children Radiological signs of urinary tract: Bilateral spider leg pattern: Polycystic kidney Thimble bladder: Chronic TB Golf hole ureter: Tb urinary bladder Rim sign: Hydronephrosis Adder head/ cobra head appearance: Ureterocoele
4
Urethroscopy
IVP
Retrograde cystogram
Micturating cystogram (MCU)
Radiology
null
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single
Skin over the prominence of the cheek is supplied by:
null
1
Zygomaticofacial
Zygomaticotemporal
Auriculotemporal
Infra trochlear
Anatomy
null
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single
An infant presents to OPD with signs of heart failure. On examination, there is hypotonia; hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly. ECG shows tall QRS complex and short PR interval. Which enzyme is deficient in this condition?
Hypotonia, hepatomegaly, cardiomegalyare seen in Pompe disease. Acid maltase or Alpha 1,4. Glucosidase is deficient in Pompe disease.
4
Glucose 6 - phosphatase
Muscle phosphorylase
Liver phosphorylase
Acid maltase
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Essential amino acid amongst the following
Essential amino acids: These are the ones which are not synthesised by the body and must be taken in diet. They include valine, leucine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, methionine and lysine. For remembering the following formula is used--MATT VIL PHLY.Ref: Textbook of medical biochemistry, MN Chatterji, 8th edition, page no: 80
4
Arginine
Lysine
Threonine
All
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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multi
Precocious puberty is defined as all of following except
Precocious puberty is menstruation before age of 10 years.
3
Onset of menstruation before age of 10 years.
Appearance of breast budding before age of 8 years in females.
Menstruation before age of 8 years.
Puberty occuring before 9 years in male.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
abbfa320-308d-4634-8926-f69f868a4887
multi
Spalding sign indicates: March 2003
Ans. C i.e. Dead born child
3
Stillborn child
Live born child
Dead born child
Viable child
Forensic Medicine
null
fe1679b4-26c0-44a6-96ee-7f98b957ee8b
single
A man presented with cut wound over scalp. The best anaesthetic agent for wound repair is:
In clinical practice, a vasoconstrictor, usually epinephrine, is often added to local anesthetics. The vasoconstrictor performs a dual service. By decreasing the rate of absorption, it not only localizes the anesthetic at the desired site, but also allows the rate at which it is destroyed in the body to keep pace with the rate at which it is absorbed into the circulation. This reduces its systemic toxicity. Must Know: The use of vasoconstrictors in local anesthetic preparations for anatomical regions with limited collateral circulation could produce irreversible hypoxic damage, tissue necrosis, and gangrene, and therefore is contraindicated. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
4
1% xylocaine
2% xylocaine
Ketamine
Xylocaine + adrenaline
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Thumb print sign in plain x-ray is seen in:
Ans: a (Ischeamic colitis)Ref: Harrison, 17 ed. pg. 1091, 213; Grainger and Allison 5 ed. pg. 889.Thumb printing sign, i.e., bowel wall oedema seen as an early sign in ischaemic colitis. Also seen in: amoebic colitis and ulcerative colitisIschaemic colitis: Most common sites - Watershed areas of colon Splenic flexure (Griffith's point )Descending/sigmoid colon (Sudeck's point)Radiological signs in ischemic colitis:Early: Late :Thumb printing sign Pneumoperitoneum (due to (bowel wall oedema) -perforation) HallmarkPneumatosisintestinalis (air in Luminal narrowing bowel wall) Funneling of bowelOther specific radiological signs related to GIT:String sign : congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis String of kantor : Crohn's disease Sawtooth appear- ance : DiverticulosisWhirlpool sign : Midgut volvulus Coffee bean sign : Sigmoid volvulus Claw sign/target sign/meniscus sign:IntussusceptionBridgeThumb print sign in neck x-ray is seen in acute epiglotitis
1
Ischeamic colitis
Ulcerative colitis
Pseudomembranous colitis
Appendicitis
Radiology
G.I.T.
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All of the following physiological changes are seen in pregnancy except:
Ans. d. Increased peripheral resistance (Ref: Dutta 6/e p53, 51)During the physiological course of pregnancy, maternal peripheral vascular resistance decreases."Pregnancy is a state of hypervolemia. There is active retention of sodium (900 mmol), potassium (350 mmol) and water."- Dutta 6/e p51Hemodynamic Changes during Pregnancy Non-PregnantPregnancy near TermChangeCardiac output (liter/min)4.56.26+40%Stroke volume (ml)6575+27%Heart rate (per minute)7085+17%Blood pressureUnaffected or mid-pregnancy drop of diastolic pressure by 5-10 mm HgVenous pressure8-10 cm (femoral)20 cm water+100% waterColloid oncotic pressure2018-14%Systemic vascular resistance -21%Pulmonary vascular resistance -34%
4
Increased stroke volume
Increased cardiac output
Increased intravascular volume
Increased peripheral resistance
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Cardiovascular System
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Submucosal plexus is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Meissner's plexusInnervation of GITo The gastrointestinal tract has a nervous system all its own called the enteric nervous system. It lies entirely in the wall of the gut, beginning in the esophagus and extending all the way to the anus. The enteric nervous system is composed mainly of two plexus : -i) Myenteric plexus or Auerbach's plexusIt is an outer plexus lying between the longitudinal and circular muscle layer. The myenteric plexus controls mainly gastrointestinal motility, therefore, peristalsis requires an active myenteric plexus.ii) Meissner's plexus or submucosal plexusIt is an inner plexus that lies in the submucosa. The submucosal plexus controls mainly gastrointestinal secretion and local blood flow.o Extrinsic nerves (Parasympathetic and sympathetic) are connected to both myenteric and submucosal plexuses. The enteric nervous system can function independently of these extrinsic nerves and these extrinsic nerves only modify the activity of the enteric nervous system,\o Therefore, peristalsis is present even if the intestine is deprived of extrinsic innervation.o Parasympathetic stimulation enhances GI motility and secretion whereas sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility and secretions.
3
Myenteric plexus
Auerbach's plexus
Meissner's plexus
Tympanic plexus
Unknown
null
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single
Pelkan spur is seen in –
Pelkan spur is seen in scurvy.
2
Rickets
Scurvy
Hemophilia
All
Radiology
null
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multi
Most common site of metastasis in Choriocarcinoma is?
ANSWER: (B) LungsREF: Shaw 14th e p- 233Sites of metastasis in choriocarcinomaLungs (80%) > vagina (30%) > pelvis (20%) > liver (10%) > brain (10%)
2
Liver
Lungs
Brain
Ovaries
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Choriocarcinoma
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Which of the following is true regarding vessels in the umbilical cord :
C. i.e. Two aeries and the left vein;
3
Two aeries & two vein
One a & one vein
Two a & the left vein
Two a & the left vein
Anatomy
null
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Serological pattern observed for Acute Hepatitis B, with active viral replication is:
Hepatitis B virus expresses three antigens, viz. Corresponding antibodies produced on stimulation of immune system are: 1. HBsAg (Australia antigen) - surface antigen - 1st antigen to appear 2. HBcAg - core antigen - Rarely appears alone 3. HBeAg - Marker of infectivity, indicate active viral replication 1. Anti-HBs - Marker of end of period of communicability 2. Anti-HBc - 1st Ab to appear 3. Anti-HBe - Marker of good prognosis Serological patterns seen in Hepatitis B infection are: Condition Serological Pattern Acute Hepatitis B HBsAg, HBeAg, IgM Anti-HBc Chronic Hepatitis B, with active viral replication HbsAg, HBeAg, IgG Anti-HBc Chronic Hepatitis B, with low viral replication HbsAg, IgG Anti-HBc, Anti-HBe Recovery from Hepatitis B infection Anti-HBs, IgG Anti-HBc Post Vaccination Anti-HBs
1
HBsAg, HBeAg, IgM Anti-HBc
HBsAg, IgG Anti-HBc
HBeAg
HBsAg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Intestinal Infections, Worm Infestations
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17 yr girl presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination there is absent breast development, however vagina is normal. USG reveals a hypoplastic uterus and bilateral ovaries are not visualised. Diagnosis is
Turner syndrome (45,X) is the most common karyotypic abnormality causing gonadal failure and primary amenorrhea. Amenorrhea is the result of accelerated atresia of the follicles. The fibrotic ovaries are called streak ovaries. Associated stigmata with Turner syndrome include Gonadal Failure Sho stature Webbed neck, Shield chest, Cubitus valgus low hair line high arched palate multiple pigmented nevi Sho fouh metacarpals Cardiac (30% have coarctation of the aoa), Renal (especially horseshoe kidney), Autoimmune (thyroiditis) Androgen insensitivity is a genotypic male with functional testes but the androgen made by the testes is not recognised by the end organs and hence they reach the periphery and conve to estrogens. This leads to external feminisation. Swyer syndrome is much rarer. This is characterised non functional testes. Hence uterus cervix tubes and upper 4/5th of vagina is made. Lower 1/5th vagina is made by the urogenital sinus.This is the 46xy 'female' .Since there is no working androgens, there is no maculinisation, and also no feminisation since there is no estrogen production. This is a much lesser feminine woman as compared with testicular feminization syndrome
1
Turners syndrome
Swyer syndrome
Mullerian agenesis
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Mullerian Abnormalities
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A middle-aged male comes to the OPD with the only complaint of hoarseness of voice for the past 2 years. He has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion of both cords was seen. Management would include all except -
null
2
Cessation of smoking
Bilateral cordectomy
Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy
Regular follow-up
ENT
null
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Inclusions in oligodendrogliocytes is a feature of aEUR'
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy :? . Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy is a progressive disorder cause by J.C. virusdeg. . The main cells affected in the disease are oligodendrocytesdeg. . Since oligodendrocytes are concerned with myelination, progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy is characterized by multifocal areas of demyelinationQ of varying size distributed throughout the brain but sparing the spinal cord and optic nerves. Pathology . Besides demyelination there are characteristis cytological alterations in both astrocytes and oligodendrocytes : - AstrocytesQ . Enlarged and contain, hyperchromatic, deformed and bizarre nuclei and frequent mitotic figures. OligodendrocytesQ . These have enlarged densely staining nuclei that contains virus inclusions.formed by crystalline arrays. Symptoms of progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy :? Visual defects (45%) --> Homonymous hemianopia, Conjugate gaze abnormalities Mental impairment (38%) Dementia, confusion, personality changes Weakness --> Hemi or monoparesis and ataxia Seizures (20%) ---> Speech defect aphasia, hemiparesis, ataxia Focal neurological signs . Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy is predominantly seen in patients with immunosuppressive disorders: ? . Most commonly associated conditions are: ? - AIDS (80%)Q - Hematological malignancies (13%) - Transplant recipients (5%) - Chronic inflammatory disease (2%) Prognosis of progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy . In most cases death occurs in 3-6 months .from onset of neurological symptoms and even more rapidly in patients with AIDS unless aggressive interetrul treatment is undeaken. Diagnosis . MRI is used for the diagnosis of PML. . MRI is better than CT scan in the diagnosis of PML and is frequently used for the diagnosis of PML. . On MRI the lesion appears as multrfocal asymmetric coalescing white matter located periventricularly. . These lesions have increased signals on T2 and FLAIR images and decrease signal on T,-weighted images. . PML lesions are classically nonenhancingQ. . Other impoant diagnostic tool in PML is the PCR amplification of JCV DNA. . The PCR amplification of JCV DNA in association with typical MRI lesion in the appropriate clinical setting is diagnostic of PML. I am not sure of the answer, visual symptoms, aphasia dysahria are commonly seen in PML.
4
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
CIDP
HSV
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Pathology
null
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single
Sentinal lymph node for carcinoma penis is know as
Cabana Node ⇒ Superficial injuinal node is the sentinal lymph node for carcinoma penis.
3
Delphian node
Darwins node
Cabana node
Virchan node
Surgery
null
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single
Most common type of cancer gall bladder in a patient with gallstone-
null
1
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous carcinoma
Sarcoma
None
Surgery
null
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Placenta pre true are:
Prior surgery on the uterus especially Caesarean section increases the incidence of placenta prae two or three fold.The combination of a prior Caesarean section with an anterior placenta prae is paicularly dangerous (refer pgno:129 sheila textbook of obstetrics 2nd edition)
1
incidence increases by two fold after LSCS
More common in primipara
Most common in developed countries
1 per 1000 pregnancies
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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multi
What percentage of cold thyroid nodules are malignant
Ans. is 'd' i.e. 10-20%
4
70-80%
50-60%
40-50%
10-20%
Surgery
null
88a36ccd-951c-4747-8acd-c510faddd095
single
All of the following are reasons for cone cut except:
Cone cut: Cause: Cone of radiation not covering the area of interest, not using film holders. Correction: Make sure that the cone is properly centered over the area of interest and the film, both vertically and horizontally. Cause: PID not properly aligned with the periapical film holder. Correction: Position the PID carefully. If a film holder with an aiming ring is used, make sure that the PID and the aiming ring are aligned. Cause: Top of the film not immersed in the developing solution. Correction: Maintain the level of the solution in the processing tanks and make sure that the film is completely immersed during processing.
4
Cone of radiation not covering the area of interest
PID not properly aligned with periapical film holder
Top of the film not immersed in the developing solution
Not enough film showing below or above the crowns of the teeth
Radiology
null
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multi
Which agent is used to prevent synechiae after DCR surgery
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitomycin Now, Mitomycin is being increasingly used for this purpose and is proving more usefulMitomycin is an anticancer agent that has shown to decrease scar formation after E.N.T. surgeryIt is an antifibroblastic agent and thus prevents the wound healing and subsequent synechae formation.It is useful in preventing synechae formation in following operations :?DCRSinus surgery
1
Mitomycin
Tacrolimus
Cyclosporine
Doxycycline
ENT
null
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single
Laproscopic procedure patient develops shoulder pain due to
Ans. (c) Sub diaphragmatic migration of gas(Ref: Bailey 26th 100-101)* Shoulder pain after laparoscopy is due to pain referred from diaphragm and due to subdiaphragmatic migration of gas
3
Sub phrenic abscess
positional pain during surgery
Sub diaphragmatic migration of gas
Injury to liver
Surgery
Peritoneum
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single
All of the following statements about Staphylococcus aureus are true, Except
The most common source of infection is human patients and carriers Animals and inanimate objects being less impoant. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; Page No: 205
1
Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people
About 30% of general population is healthy nasal carriers
Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens
Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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multi
Which of the following is not found commonly in Graves disease?
Graves disease is the most common cause of endogenous hypehyroidism. Most common antibody subtype, known as thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) is observed in approximately 90% of patients with Graves disease resulting in hypehyroidism. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) is directed mainly against TSH receptor. The follicles are lined by tall columnar epithelial cells that are actively resorbing the colloid in the centers of the follicles, resulting in a "scalloped" appearance of the colloid. Other antibodies associated are: Antibodies against thyroglobulin and thryoid peroxidase. Thyroid growth-stimulating immunoglobulins - resulting in proliferation of thyroid follicular epithelium. TSH-binding inhibitor immunoglobulins - prevent TSH from binding to its receptor resulting in hypothyroidism
4
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)
Antibody against thyroglobulin
Antibody against thyroid peroxidase (TPO)
Antibody against thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Pathology
Hypehyroidism and Goitre
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single
Choose the right combination:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Z.N. staining - Mycobacterium tuberculosisImage description - Z.N. staining of smear showing long slender, beaded, red colored acid fast bacilli with numerous pus cells against blue background.
3
Gram staining - Gram negative bacilli
Gram staining - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Z N staining - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Z N staining - Gram negative bacilli
Microbiology
Bacteria
f00a29f9-8cf6-4a3e-b32c-e748ee12901c
single
Which of the following is NOT the feature of secondary ACTH deficiency?
Clinical feature of secondary ACTH deficiency: Mineralocoicoid secretion is intact. Manifests more insidiously with lack of skin hyperpigmentation. Hypotension is seen with gluco-coicoid deficiency because of loss of control of inhibition of vasopressin. Fatigue, hyponatremia, and hypoglycaemia is also seen
3
Hypotension
Fatigue
Hyperpigmentation
Anorexia
Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
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single
A young male presented with abdominal pain for the past 2 years. He also complains of weakness in his hands. His hemoblobin level was 8 gm/dL. The most likely diagnosis:
Ans. a. Lead poisoning (Ref: Parikh 6/e p9.22; Reddy 33/e p544, 31st/e p506-508)The most likely diagnosis in a young male who presented with abdominal pain for the past 2 years with complains of weakness in his hands and hemoblobin level of 8 gm/dL is lead poisoning.Lead poisoningMetallic lead and all its salts are poisonous.Principal toxic salts of Lead* Lead acetateQ (Saturn salt or sugar of lead)* Lead carbonateQ (safeda)* Lead chromateQ* Lead tetra oxide (red lead, vermillion, sindur)* Lead mono oxide (litharge)* Lead sulphide (Least toxic)At cellular level lead interacts with sulfhydryl groups and interferes in action of enzymes essential for heme synthesis, thus for hemoglobin and cytochrome production. It causes hemolysisQ.Fatal dose:Lead acetate: 20 gm; Lead carbonate: 40 gmFatal period: 1-2 daysSigns and symptoms of Lead PoisoningAcute PoisoningChronic Lead Poisoning (Plumbism, saturnism)* Astringent or metallic taste* Dry throat and thirst* Abdominal painQ, nausea and vomiting, sometimes diarrhea.* Peripheral circulatory collapseQ* Headache, weakness, insomnia, paresthesia, depression, coma and death.* Cerebellar ataxia is common in children in acute lead poisoningQ* Facial pallor Earliest and most consistent signQ* Weakness* Punctate basophilic or basophilic stipplingQ* Lead line (Burtonian lines in gums)Q* Colic (Dry belly ache)Q and constipation is late symptomQ* Sterility in males and females.* Wrist drop and foot dropQ* Vasoconstriction leads to hypertension and arteriolar degenerationQ* Lead encephalopathyQDiagnosis:Porphyrinuria (mainly due to coproporphyrin III inhibition)Stood testsUrine tests* >200 punctate basophilia stippling cells /mm3 is diagnosticQ* Zinc protoporphyrin and free erythrocyte protoporphyrin > 50mg/100mlQ* Increased lead and aminolaevulinic acid (>25mg/100ml)Q* Increased coproporphyrin (CPU) levels. In nonexposed person it is <150mg /literQ* Aminolaevulinic acid > 5mg* Presence of 0.25mg lead/liter is diagnosticQX-ray: Radiopaque matter in GI tract (ingested < 48 hours): Radio-opaque bands /lines at metaphysis of long bones in childrenQTreatment:Gastric lavage with 1% solution of sodium or magnesium sulphateQChelating agent: BAL, DMSAMost effective antidote: Calcium Disodium VersenateQIntravenous calcium chloride causes deposition of lead in skeleton from bloodQ.Peritoneal or hemodialysis.Symptomatic treatmentChronic Lead Poisoning presents with "New-A B C D E F"New* Neuropathy (leading to weakness, wrist drop) and NephropathyQ (Late feature)A* Anemia with punctate basophilia (i.e. basophilic stippling)Q (Early feature)B* Burtonian or blue stippled lead line on gumsQC* Colic (abdominal pain) and ConstipationQD* Dry belly ache i.e. diarrhea is very rareQ* Dyspepsia. Drop of wrist etc due to neuropathyQE* EncephalopathyQ, EosinophiliaF* Facial pallorQ (earliest sign)
1
Lead poisoning
Duodenal ulcer
Carcinoma stomach
Adenomatous polyposis coli
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
28db287d-251c-4843-af31-918347c28afc
single
Investigation of choice for amoebic liver abscess: March 2012
Ans: B i.e. Serum Entamoeba antibodies Diagnosis of amoebic liver disease Analysis of serum for Entamoeba antibodies by immunoassay carries 99% sensitivity and more than 90% specificity, and is more accurate than stool analysis in amoebic liver disease Diagnosis may depend on cyst aspiration revealing the classic anchovy sauce appearance of the cyst fluid
2
Demonstration of parasites in stool
Serum Entamoeba antibodies
Aspiration of cyst fluid
X-ray abdomen
Medicine
null
b85898f2-f6ca-4186-8068-0c2adaf4079d
single
Following are true regarding chlorination except –
Contact period of 1 hour is recommended.
2
Residual chlorine is 0.5 mg/lit.
Contact period – 30 minute
Water should not be turbid
Chlorine demand should be estimated
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a02f441d-ebf1-403c-a21f-42a01b289f3d
multi
Which is rheumatic ahritis autoantibody -
Answer is anti ccp Rheumatoid ahritis is an autoimmune disease involving complex and still poorly understood interactions of genetic risk factors, environment and the immune system. In atleast 70% of patients the blood contains anti-ccp antibody, which may be produced during inflammation. These antibodies contribute to the bone lesions. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 784,heading box=Pathogenesis
2
Anti DLE
Anti CCP
Anti ds DNA
Anti histone
Pathology
Breast
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single
Fomepizole as a antidote is used in the poisoning of: September 2009 and March 2013 (b, h)
Ans. B: Methyl alcohol Fomepizole or 4-methylpyrazole is indicated for use as an antidote in confirmed or suspected methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning. It may be used alone or in combination with hemodialysis.
2
Organophosphrous
Methyl alcohol
Aluminium phosphide
Copper
Forensic Medicine
null
f17e61c1-0e8d-43d6-ac85-139e72bd5d9c
single
Case Fatality Rate (CFR) of Rabies is
null
3
80%
90%
100%
95%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
20fe2e1b-4a4a-4acb-bfb3-421a580953f6
single
A patients present with dogs bite in the palm, fingers and oozing of blood on the neck regions, belongs to which class of the exposures
(Class III) (231- Park 19th) (243-Park 20th)CLASSIFICATION OF EXPOSURESClass I (Slight risk)Class II (Moderate risk)* Licks on healthy unbroken skin* Consumption of unboiled milk of the suspected animals* Scratches without oozing of bloodLikes on fresh cutsScratches with oozing of bloodAll bites except those on head neck,face, palms and fingersMinor wounds less than 5 in numberClass III (Severe risk)* All bites or scratches with oozing of blood on the neck, head, face, palms and fingers* Lacerated wounds on any part of the body* Multible wounds 5 or more in numbers* Bites from wild animals
3
Class I
Class II
Class III
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
b0d63496-b7a4-4350-8722-6401e324ff58
multi
One of the following statements is NOT true:
An Assistant Sessions Judge can award imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years (Sessions cou is located at district headquaers. It can pass any sentence authorized by law but a sentence of death must be confirmed by the high cou (Sec. 366 CrPC). Assistant Sessions cou can pass any sentence except a sentence of death or imprisonment for a term> 10 yrs (Sec. 28 CrPC).)
2
An Additional Sessions Judge can award any 'punishment authorized by law'
An Assistant Sessions Judge can award imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years
Death sentence passed by an Additional Sessions Judge has to be confirmed by the High /Cou
An Assistant Sessions Judge cannot pass a death sentence
Surgery
null
4ee90ebd-81d9-4983-8ce6-9becd293ca01
multi
Investigation of choice for SCIWORA is
'SCIWORA' is the abbretion of 'spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality'. MRI is the Investigation of Choice and has normal plain film and CT findings. It tends to occur in the paediatric population and involves upper cervical spinal cord. MRI cervical-dorsal spine Sagitta view of a paediatric patient showing hyper intensity in spinal cord at C7-D1 level s/o spinal cord contusion.
3
CT
X-ray
MRI
All of the above
Radiology
Neuroradiology
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multi